Mock 13 Crash
Mock Test 13
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- Answered
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Question 1 of 120
1. Question
Right hepatic duct drains all parts of liver, EXCEPT:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 120
2. Question
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Turkish saddle is a saddle-shaped depression in the body of the parietal bone
Statement II: The deepest part of the Turkish saddle is known as the hypophyseal fossa, holds pituitary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 3 of 120
3. Question
Traction epiphysis is/are:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 4 of 120
4. Question
All are true regarding axillary lymph nodes EXCEPT:
Correct
LATERAL GROUP OF LYMPH NODES ( HUMERAL GROUP) LOCATED ALONG LATERAL WALL OF AXILLA , SPECIALLY ALONG THE SIDE THE AXILLARY VEIN ( MEDIAL SIDES)
Incorrect
LATERAL GROUP OF LYMPH NODES ( HUMERAL GROUP) LOCATED ALONG LATERAL WALL OF AXILLA , SPECIALLY ALONG THE SIDE THE AXILLARY VEIN ( MEDIAL SIDES)
Unattempted
LATERAL GROUP OF LYMPH NODES ( HUMERAL GROUP) LOCATED ALONG LATERAL WALL OF AXILLA , SPECIALLY ALONG THE SIDE THE AXILLARY VEIN ( MEDIAL SIDES)

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Question 5 of 120
5. Question
Surface marking of the oblique fissure of lung include all EXCEPT:
Correct
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Question 6 of 120
6. Question
Finger drop with no wrist drop is caused by lesion of:
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Question 7 of 120
7. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Spermiogenesis is the last step of spermatogenesis.
Reason (R): Spermiogenesis means Formation of spermatozoa from spermatogonia
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 120
8. Question
Motor march is seen in ?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 120
9. Question
Lesion of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus causes?
Correct
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Question 10 of 120
10. Question
CSF/plasma glucose ratio is ?
Correct
Normal CSF glucose is around 50-80 mg/dL, and the normal ratio should be 0.6-0.8
Low CSF glucose and low CSF/plasma ratio point to bacterial meningitis, fungal meningitis, or tuberculous meningitis.
Viral meningitis typically has a normal or mildly low CSF glucose level, and the ratio may stay above 0.4.
Incorrect
Normal CSF glucose is around 50-80 mg/dL, and the normal ratio should be 0.6-0.8
Low CSF glucose and low CSF/plasma ratio point to bacterial meningitis, fungal meningitis, or tuberculous meningitis.
Viral meningitis typically has a normal or mildly low CSF glucose level, and the ratio may stay above 0.4.
Unattempted
Normal CSF glucose is around 50-80 mg/dL, and the normal ratio should be 0.6-0.8
Low CSF glucose and low CSF/plasma ratio point to bacterial meningitis, fungal meningitis, or tuberculous meningitis.
Viral meningitis typically has a normal or mildly low CSF glucose level, and the ratio may stay above 0.4.
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Question 11 of 120
11. Question
Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are ?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 12 of 120
12. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Individuals who do not take much interest in describing their ailments are called Hypochondriacs
Reason (R): Hypochondriac often presents with imaginary illness
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Assertion (A): This statement is incorrect. Hypochondriacs are individuals who are excessively preoccupied with the fear of having a serious illness, even though they may not have significant physical symptoms. Hypochondriacs are characterized by an exaggerated concern about their health, often seeking frequent medical attention. Therefore, the description of hypochondriacs as people who “do not take much interest” in their ailments is inaccurate.
Reason (R): This statement is correct. Hypochondriacs often present with imaginary illnesses or exaggerated perceptions of normal bodily sensations, interpreting them as symptoms of a severe disease. This is a key feature of Hypochondriasis
Incorrect
Assertion (A): This statement is incorrect. Hypochondriacs are individuals who are excessively preoccupied with the fear of having a serious illness, even though they may not have significant physical symptoms. Hypochondriacs are characterized by an exaggerated concern about their health, often seeking frequent medical attention. Therefore, the description of hypochondriacs as people who “do not take much interest” in their ailments is inaccurate.
Reason (R): This statement is correct. Hypochondriacs often present with imaginary illnesses or exaggerated perceptions of normal bodily sensations, interpreting them as symptoms of a severe disease. This is a key feature of Hypochondriasis
Unattempted
Assertion (A): This statement is incorrect. Hypochondriacs are individuals who are excessively preoccupied with the fear of having a serious illness, even though they may not have significant physical symptoms. Hypochondriacs are characterized by an exaggerated concern about their health, often seeking frequent medical attention. Therefore, the description of hypochondriacs as people who “do not take much interest” in their ailments is inaccurate.
Reason (R): This statement is correct. Hypochondriacs often present with imaginary illnesses or exaggerated perceptions of normal bodily sensations, interpreting them as symptoms of a severe disease. This is a key feature of Hypochondriasis
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Question 13 of 120
13. Question
The histological features of shock includes:
(A) ATN
(B) Pulmonary congestion
(C) Depletion of lipids in adrenal cortex
(D) Hepatic necrosis
(E) Depletion of lymphocytesCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 14 of 120
14. Question
Virchow’s triad includes all except
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 120
15. Question
Coagulative necrosis as a primary event is most often seen in all except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 120
16. Question
Match the list of cells with their functions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 17 of 120
17. Question
All of the viruses cause pneumonia except :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 120
18. Question
All of the following causes biliary obstruction except :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 120
19. Question
Police inquest is required in all except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 20 of 120
20. Question
First permanent teeth to erupt is:
Correct
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Question 21 of 120
21. Question
Dirt collar or grease collar is seen in:
Correct
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Question 22 of 120
22. Question
Kennedy phenomenon is seen in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 120
23. Question
The following are the changes in the uterus during pregnancy except:
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Incorrect
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Question 24 of 120
24. Question
Principal blood values during pregnancy are all except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 120
25. Question
The following changes occur in blood coagulation factors in pregnancy except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 120
26. Question
Spalding’s sign is seen in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 120
27. Question
Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at?
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Question 28 of 120
28. Question
Absolute contraindication of HRT is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 120
29. Question
All of the following structures are homologous except:
A. Labia majora and scrotum
B. Labia minora and penile urethra
C. Epoophoron and caudal end of wolffian duct
D. Clitoris and glans penis
E. Skene glands and prostateCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 120
30. Question
Cervical canal is lined by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 120
31. Question
A 19-year-old girl with painless ulcer in labia majora with everted margins:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 120
32. Question
Best investigation to establish the diagnosis of endometriosis is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 120
33. Question
Immediate physiological response to sudden decrease in blood volume is
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted


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Question 34 of 120
34. Question
What is the meaning of the French word “Debridement”
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 120
35. Question
Slip sign is seen in
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 120
36. Question
Dermoepidermal burn is what degree of burn –
Correct
1. First-Degree Burn (Superficial Burn):
Involves: The epidermis (outermost skin layer).Appearance: Redness, swelling, and pain.
Symptoms: Painful but typically no blisters.
Healing: Heals in 3-5 days without scarring.
Example: Sunburn.
Management: Cool compresses, analgesics, and moisturizing creams.
2. Second-Degree Burn (Partial-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis and part of the dermis.Appearance: Blisters, redness, swelling, and severe pain.
Symptoms: Blisters form, and there is intense pain.
Healing: Heals in 2-3 weeks. Scarring is possible, and pigmentation changes may occur.
Management: Clean wound care, dressings, pain control, and sometimes antibiotics to prevent infection.
3. Third-Degree Burn (Full-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.Appearance: White, charred, or leathery texture; may be painless due to nerve destruction.
Symptoms: No pain at the burn site because of nerve damage, but surrounding areas may still hurt.
Healing: Does not heal on its own and requires skin grafting. Severe scarring and contractures are common.
Management: Surgical intervention (e.g., skin grafts), fluid resuscitation, infection control.
4. Fourth-Degree Burn:
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle, tendons, or bone.Appearance: Charred tissue, with exposure of underlying structures (bones, muscles).
Symptoms: No pain at the site due to extensive nerve damage.
Healing: Does not heal on its own. Amputation or reconstructive surgery may be required.
Management: Surgical intervention for reconstruction or amputation; long-term rehabilitation.
Incorrect
1. First-Degree Burn (Superficial Burn):
Involves: The epidermis (outermost skin layer).Appearance: Redness, swelling, and pain.
Symptoms: Painful but typically no blisters.
Healing: Heals in 3-5 days without scarring.
Example: Sunburn.
Management: Cool compresses, analgesics, and moisturizing creams.
2. Second-Degree Burn (Partial-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis and part of the dermis.Appearance: Blisters, redness, swelling, and severe pain.
Symptoms: Blisters form, and there is intense pain.
Healing: Heals in 2-3 weeks. Scarring is possible, and pigmentation changes may occur.
Management: Clean wound care, dressings, pain control, and sometimes antibiotics to prevent infection.
3. Third-Degree Burn (Full-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.Appearance: White, charred, or leathery texture; may be painless due to nerve destruction.
Symptoms: No pain at the burn site because of nerve damage, but surrounding areas may still hurt.
Healing: Does not heal on its own and requires skin grafting. Severe scarring and contractures are common.
Management: Surgical intervention (e.g., skin grafts), fluid resuscitation, infection control.
4. Fourth-Degree Burn:
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle, tendons, or bone.Appearance: Charred tissue, with exposure of underlying structures (bones, muscles).
Symptoms: No pain at the site due to extensive nerve damage.
Healing: Does not heal on its own. Amputation or reconstructive surgery may be required.
Management: Surgical intervention for reconstruction or amputation; long-term rehabilitation.
Unattempted
1. First-Degree Burn (Superficial Burn):
Involves: The epidermis (outermost skin layer).Appearance: Redness, swelling, and pain.
Symptoms: Painful but typically no blisters.
Healing: Heals in 3-5 days without scarring.
Example: Sunburn.
Management: Cool compresses, analgesics, and moisturizing creams.
2. Second-Degree Burn (Partial-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis and part of the dermis.Appearance: Blisters, redness, swelling, and severe pain.
Symptoms: Blisters form, and there is intense pain.
Healing: Heals in 2-3 weeks. Scarring is possible, and pigmentation changes may occur.
Management: Clean wound care, dressings, pain control, and sometimes antibiotics to prevent infection.
3. Third-Degree Burn (Full-Thickness Burn):
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.Appearance: White, charred, or leathery texture; may be painless due to nerve destruction.
Symptoms: No pain at the burn site because of nerve damage, but surrounding areas may still hurt.
Healing: Does not heal on its own and requires skin grafting. Severe scarring and contractures are common.
Management: Surgical intervention (e.g., skin grafts), fluid resuscitation, infection control.
4. Fourth-Degree Burn:
Involves: The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle, tendons, or bone.Appearance: Charred tissue, with exposure of underlying structures (bones, muscles).
Symptoms: No pain at the site due to extensive nerve damage.
Healing: Does not heal on its own. Amputation or reconstructive surgery may be required.
Management: Surgical intervention for reconstruction or amputation; long-term rehabilitation.
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Question 37 of 120
37. Question
Cardinal rule for dressing of pressure ulcer is to –
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 120
38. Question
Spleniculi are seen most commonly in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 120
39. Question
The MOST common type of dislocation of elbow joint is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 120
40. Question
What is the most common position of appendix?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 120
41. Question
If a mother is donating kidney to her son is an example
Correct
Autografts: Best option, no rejection.
Allografts: Human-to-human, require immunosuppression.
Xenografts: Animal-to-human, high rejection risk.
Isografts: Donor and recipient are genetically identical.
Pedicle: Tissue is partially connected, useful for larger defects.
Incorrect
Autografts: Best option, no rejection.
Allografts: Human-to-human, require immunosuppression.
Xenografts: Animal-to-human, high rejection risk.
Isografts: Donor and recipient are genetically identical.
Pedicle: Tissue is partially connected, useful for larger defects.
Unattempted
Autografts: Best option, no rejection.
Allografts: Human-to-human, require immunosuppression.
Xenografts: Animal-to-human, high rejection risk.
Isografts: Donor and recipient are genetically identical.
Pedicle: Tissue is partially connected, useful for larger defects.
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Question 42 of 120
42. Question
Uvula vesicae is produced by which prostate lobe?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 43 of 120
43. Question
Bell‘s palsy is associated with the lesion in which of the nerve?
Correct
Clinical Features:
Sudden onset of facial weakness (typically over hours to days).Unilateral facial drooping: Asymmetry in smile, inability to close the eye on the affected side.
Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
Pain around the ear, jaw, or behind the ear in some cases.
Hyperacusis (sensitivity to sound) due to stapedius muscle paralysis.
No sensory loss in the face (distinguishing from a stroke).
Incorrect
Clinical Features:
Sudden onset of facial weakness (typically over hours to days).Unilateral facial drooping: Asymmetry in smile, inability to close the eye on the affected side.
Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
Pain around the ear, jaw, or behind the ear in some cases.
Hyperacusis (sensitivity to sound) due to stapedius muscle paralysis.
No sensory loss in the face (distinguishing from a stroke).
Unattempted
Clinical Features:
Sudden onset of facial weakness (typically over hours to days).Unilateral facial drooping: Asymmetry in smile, inability to close the eye on the affected side.
Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
Pain around the ear, jaw, or behind the ear in some cases.
Hyperacusis (sensitivity to sound) due to stapedius muscle paralysis.
No sensory loss in the face (distinguishing from a stroke).
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Question 44 of 120
44. Question
Most common type of Intussusception is –
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 45 of 120
45. Question
Plucked chicken skin appearance is pathognomonic of
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 120
46. Question
Most common presenting finding of Multiple Sclerosis is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 120
47. Question
Which of the following does not constitute the triad of Patterson-kelly Syndrome?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 120
48. Question
Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 120
49. Question
All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, EXCEPT:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 120
50. Question
The pathognomonic finding in miliary TB is which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 120
51. Question
Kviem Siltzbach test is used in the diagnosis of:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 52 of 120
52. Question
Shock Lung is better known as:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 120
53. Question
All are true about pulmonary embolism, except .
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 120
54. Question
In what manner is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
commonly inherited?Correct
Types:
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM): Enlarged ventricles, systolic dysfunction, often idiopathic or caused by alcohol, infections, genetics.
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): Thickened septum, outflow obstruction, diastolic dysfunction, genetic (autosomal dominant).
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM): Stiff ventricles, impaired filling, due to amyloidosis, hemochromatosis.
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC): Fibrofatty infiltration of RV, arrhythmias, risk of sudden death.
Incorrect
Types:
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM): Enlarged ventricles, systolic dysfunction, often idiopathic or caused by alcohol, infections, genetics.
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): Thickened septum, outflow obstruction, diastolic dysfunction, genetic (autosomal dominant).
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM): Stiff ventricles, impaired filling, due to amyloidosis, hemochromatosis.
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC): Fibrofatty infiltration of RV, arrhythmias, risk of sudden death.
Unattempted
Types:
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM): Enlarged ventricles, systolic dysfunction, often idiopathic or caused by alcohol, infections, genetics.
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): Thickened septum, outflow obstruction, diastolic dysfunction, genetic (autosomal dominant).
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM): Stiff ventricles, impaired filling, due to amyloidosis, hemochromatosis.
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC): Fibrofatty infiltration of RV, arrhythmias, risk of sudden death.
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Question 55 of 120
55. Question
A patient presents with an incidental finding of a mass in the left atrium whilst undergoing an echocardiogram for hypertension. What is the most likely cardiac tumour in this situation?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 120
56. Question
Limb ischaemia can take many forms and has varied causes. This may result in sudden acute vessel occlusion from arterial spasm or thrombosis, or more chronic processes. What is the most likely underlying cause of severe limb ischaemia in an otherwise well, thin 30 year old heavy smoker?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 120
57. Question
First Symptoms of parkinsons disease is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 58 of 120
58. Question
Plaques jaunes are seen in
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 120
59. Question
Most common nerve affected in leprosy
Correct
ChatGPT said:
The most commonly affected nerves in leprosy are the peripheral nerves, especially those in the skin, extremities, and face. Among these, the ulnar nerve, peroneal nerve, and posterior tibial nerve are most frequently involved.Ulnar nerve: Often affects the hands, leading to a loss of sensation in the fingers and deformities like claw hand.
Peroneal nerve: Typically affects the feet and lower legs, resulting in foot drop (difficulty lifting the front part of the foot).
Posterior tibial nerve: Can affect the soles of the feet and lead to issues with walking and foot sensations.
Incorrect
ChatGPT said:
The most commonly affected nerves in leprosy are the peripheral nerves, especially those in the skin, extremities, and face. Among these, the ulnar nerve, peroneal nerve, and posterior tibial nerve are most frequently involved.Ulnar nerve: Often affects the hands, leading to a loss of sensation in the fingers and deformities like claw hand.
Peroneal nerve: Typically affects the feet and lower legs, resulting in foot drop (difficulty lifting the front part of the foot).
Posterior tibial nerve: Can affect the soles of the feet and lead to issues with walking and foot sensations.
Unattempted
ChatGPT said:
The most commonly affected nerves in leprosy are the peripheral nerves, especially those in the skin, extremities, and face. Among these, the ulnar nerve, peroneal nerve, and posterior tibial nerve are most frequently involved.Ulnar nerve: Often affects the hands, leading to a loss of sensation in the fingers and deformities like claw hand.
Peroneal nerve: Typically affects the feet and lower legs, resulting in foot drop (difficulty lifting the front part of the foot).
Posterior tibial nerve: Can affect the soles of the feet and lead to issues with walking and foot sensations.
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Question 60 of 120
60. Question
A 25 year old female presents with generalized restriction of eye movement in all direction, intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and fatigability.Which is the MOST useful test in making the diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 120
61. Question
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: One DALY signifies 1 year of disease free life
Statement II: DALY is Years lost to premature death and years lived with disability adjusted for severity of disability
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 62 of 120
62. Question
Disease eliminated from India is /are:
A. Small pox
B. Guinea worm disease
C. Yaws
D. Measles
E. PolioCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 63 of 120
63. Question
Herd immunity is not seen in :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 64 of 120
64. Question
Quarantine was originally introduced as a protection against:
Correct
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Question 65 of 120
65. Question
Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) is:
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Question 66 of 120
66. Question
_______ Means to separate out the tincture with force from solid drug materials
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Question 67 of 120
67. Question
The word alcohol originates from
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Question 68 of 120
68. Question
Liver of Sulphur is synonyms of
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Question 69 of 120
69. Question
Aureliamedusa common name
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Question 70 of 120
70. Question
What is Plant Moisture
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Question 71 of 120
71. Question
Cannot get asleep unless legs are crossed
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Question 72 of 120
72. Question
Termini of nerves became so irritated & sensitive that some kind of friction was necessary to obtain relief.
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Question 73 of 120
73. Question
Sensation as of drops of water falling on or from single parts; on the head, from the anus, stomach, heart
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Question 74 of 120
74. Question
______ often cures lasciviousness when Hyos. Fails
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Question 75 of 120
75. Question
Mosquito and insect bites burn and itch intensely
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Question 76 of 120
76. Question
Morbid dread of the opposite sex
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Question 77 of 120
77. Question
Anemia and absence of fever
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Question 78 of 120
78. Question
Delusion as if a strange person are looking over patients shoulder and that she would see someone on turning
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Question 79 of 120
79. Question
Smell abnormally acute, cannot tolerate flowers
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Question 80 of 120
80. Question
Toothache after washing clothes.
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Question 81 of 120
81. Question
Sleeps with one leg drawn up and the other stretched out
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Question 82 of 120
82. Question
Fever Paroxysms comes at 7am, with great loquacity during chill and heat but sleep during sweat stage
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Question 83 of 120
83. Question
Sweat – Odour of Sulphur
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Question 84 of 120
84. Question
Old people with morning diarrhea, suddenly become constipated, or alternate diarrhea and constipation; pulse hard and rapid.
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Question 85 of 120
85. Question
Fat chubby, short-necked children disposed to croup and croupy affection
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Question 86 of 120
86. Question
Indicated after indigestible food, raisins, cakes, etc.
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Question 87 of 120
87. Question
Burning of whole alimentary canal. Vomiting, sour bloody, biliary. Nausea. Profuse flow of saliva
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Question 88 of 120
88. Question
Which among these is not a symptom of Sabadilla?
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Question 89 of 120
89. Question
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The mesmeriser possesses but a very moderate desire for sexual intercourse.
Reason R: Which would give him very little trouble wholly to suppress, in whom, consequently, all the fine vital spirits that would otherwise be employed in the preparation of the semen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
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Question 90 of 120
90. Question
Books written by Dr. Herbert A. Roberts are:
A. The Principle and Art of Cure of Homoeopathy
B. The comparative repertory on Kent
C. The study of remedies by comparison
D. Sensation as if
E. Principle and practicability of BTPBCorrect
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Question 91 of 120
91. Question
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Law of causation teaches that no internal effect can arise without an external cause, and that the effect itself may in turn become a cause of further changes
Statement II: The law of vis interiae teaches that all internal changes of bodies in nature are the results of an internal cause
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:Correct
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Question 92 of 120
92. Question
“Homeopathy works in perfect harmony with all necessary rational, non-medical and mechanical therapeutic agents. Surgery, obstetrics, hygiene, dietics, Sanitary science, chemistry and Psycho-therapy all find in homeopathy their congenial and most powerful ally” is stated by
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Question 93 of 120
93. Question
According to fifth edition of Organon, Olfaction is described in foot note of which aphorism:
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Question 94 of 120
94. Question
Treatment of the so-called mental or emotional diseases is given in:
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Question 95 of 120
95. Question
Stuart close states about ____ as ‘Whip to the tired horse’
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Question 96 of 120
96. Question
“By continual diluting and succussing, remedies neither stronger nor weaker, but their individual peculiarities get become more and more developed“, is quoted by
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Question 97 of 120
97. Question
§264-271 deals with,
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Question 98 of 120
98. Question
Match the list of these methods with their corresponding aphorisms,
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Question 99 of 120
99. Question
Following are the examples of condition when two similar diseases meet:
A. Small pox cures ophthalmia
B. Sun beam – Lamp’s flame
C. Tinea – Epilepsy
D. Itch – ScurvyCorrect
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Question 100 of 120
100. Question
Which of the following is most incurable among all:
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Question 101 of 120
101. Question
1st human proving was introduced by-
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Question 102 of 120
102. Question
The second edition of Organon contains ____Aphorisms.
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Question 103 of 120
103. Question
Arrange the following in the order of their publishing year,
A. The friend of Health
B. On the Effects of Coffee
C. Aesculapius in balance
D. Essay on new principle to ascertain the curative powers of drugs
E. Instruction for surgeon respecting Venereal diseasesCorrect
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Question 104 of 120
104. Question
Number of medicines in Bell‘s Diarrhoea
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Question 105 of 120
105. Question
Which one is true regarding “Manual of Homoeopathy”?
A.1st Indian Repertory
B.Published in 1885
C.Fr.Augustus MullerCorrect

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Question 106 of 120
106. Question
If a case contains only common symptoms then _____ method of Repertorisation should be done:
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Question 107 of 120
107. Question
Who gave the title ‘Relationship of Remedies‘ in
Boenninghausen‘s repertory?Correct

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Question 108 of 120
108. Question
Largest chapter of Kent‘s repertory is
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Question 109 of 120
109. Question
Desires and aversions of food is found _______ chapter of B.B.C.R
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Question 110 of 120
110. Question
Kent‘s‘Repertorium Generale first published in ______ language:
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Question 111 of 120
111. Question
Which one is not a computer repertory?
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Question 112 of 120
112. Question
Medicine for ‘Extravagance‘ in B.B.C.R is:
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Question 113 of 120
113. Question
Rubric which is used for elimination of apparently similar medicines in order to select the simillimum is
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Question 114 of 120
114. Question
Who defines Case taking as an individualizing examination of case of a disease
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Question 115 of 120
115. Question
Who differentiated patient and remedies into 2 main classes – Hot & Cold for utilizing as eliminating rubric?
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Question 116 of 120
116. Question
Which of the following are the Utility of studying constitution
A. Selection of potency
B.To Find and Cure the disease
C.To understand the course of disease
D.To understand the PrognosisCorrect

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Question 117 of 120
117. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Individuals who do not take much interest in describing their ailments are called Hypochondriacs
Reason (R): Hypochondriac often presents with imaginary illness
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct

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Question 118 of 120
118. Question
Chapter “Natural relationship” is given in
which renertory?Correct

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Question 119 of 120
119. Question
Who made a punched card repertory in 1912?
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Question 120 of 120
120. Question
Which method of repertorisation is called Key-note method
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