Mock 17 Crash
Mock Test 17
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 120
1. Question
Round ligament of uterus is derived from:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 2 of 120
2. Question
Which of the following correctly lists the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation?
Correct
Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius
Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula
Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi
Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.
Incorrect
Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius
Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula
Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi
Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.
Unattempted
Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius
Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula
Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi
Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.
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Question 3 of 120
3. Question
Match the list basal ganglia lesion with the disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 4 of 120
4. Question
The adductor hiatus is an opening in which muscle?
Correct
Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.
Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).
Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.
Incorrect
Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.
Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).
Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.
Unattempted
Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.
Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).
Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.
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Question 5 of 120
5. Question
All are true about mediastinum EXCEPT:
A. Heart passes through superior mediastinum
B. Heart passes through middle mediastinum
C. Thymus remnant may present in middle mediastinum
D. Posterior boundary of posterior mediastinum corresponds to T1- T4 vertebrae
E. Lower border of anterior mediastinum is extended more than posterior mediastinumCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 6 of 120
6. Question
Arrange the following in their ascending order of length:
A. Anal canal
B. Descending colon
C. Caecum
D. Rectum
E. Sigmoid colonCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 120
7. Question
In a granuloma, epithelioid cells and giant cells and derived from
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 120
8. Question
Psammoma bodies are seen in all except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 120
9. Question
Which of the following are Autosomal dominant disease?
A. Adult polycystic kidney
B. Neurofibromatosis-1
C. Neurofibromatosis-2
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
E. PhenylketonuriaCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 10 of 120
10. Question
Hemorrhagic infarction is seen in:
(A) Venous Thrombosis
(B) Thrombosis
(C) Septicaemia
(D) Embolism
(E) Central Venous ThrombosisCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 11 of 120
11. Question
Mc Callum’s patch is diagnostic of:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 12 of 120
12. Question
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Seminoma is germ cell tumor with good prognosis.
Reason R: The tumor cells rarely have areas of necrosis and haemorrhage
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 13 of 120
13. Question
In vitro fertilization is indicated in:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 14 of 120
14. Question
In a case of incontinence of urine, dye filled into the urinary bladder does not stain the pad in the vagina, yet the pad is soaked with clear urine. Most likely diagnosis is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 120
15. Question
Angry looking vagina is seen in:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 16 of 120
16. Question
Cervix: corpus ratio before puberty is:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 17 of 120
17. Question
What are the different cell layers of a mature graafian follicle from outside inwards are:
(A) Discus proliferous
(B) Theca interna
(C) Granulosa Cell layers
(D) Theca externa
(E) Membrana granulosaCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 18 of 120
18. Question
Carriers are not found in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 120
19. Question
In a case-control study, the measure of association used is:
Correct
Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.
Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.
Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.
Incorrect
Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.
Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.
Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.
Unattempted
Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.
Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.
Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.
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Question 20 of 120
20. Question
A screening test has high sensitivity. Which of the following is most likely true?
Correct
Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).
High sensitivity → very few false negatives.
“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.
Incorrect
Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).
High sensitivity → very few false negatives.
“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.
Unattempted
Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).
High sensitivity → very few false negatives.
“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.
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Question 21 of 120
21. Question
Health education regarding safe sexual practices in adolescents is an example of:
Correct
Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).
Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).
Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.
Incorrect
Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).
Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).
Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.
Unattempted
Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).
Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).
Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.
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Question 22 of 120
22. Question
Nalgonda Technique is used for:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 120
23. Question
Which of the following is the example of local maladies of external kind?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 120
24. Question
Electrotherapy deals with section …… of 6th edition:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 120
25. Question
‘Medicament a gutta’ is the name of
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 26 of 120
26. Question
The reaction of organism to external and internal influences according to H.A. Roberts is called:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 120
27. Question
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: The allopathic physician vainly imagines that he has conducted the treatment in conformity to his axiom, ‘causam tolle’
Statement II: The inflammatory irritation caused by disturbance in the vascular system can be treated with decillionth fold digestion of Aconite juice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 28 of 120
28. Question
The second edition of Organon of Medicine was published as a(n) ________ edition.
Correct
The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.
Incorrect
The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.
Unattempted
The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.
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Question 29 of 120
29. Question
The sixth edition of Organon of Medicine was published how many years after Samuel Hahnemann‘s death?
Correct
The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”
Incorrect
The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”
Unattempted
The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”
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Question 30 of 120
30. Question
Pseudo chronic disease is stated in –
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 120
31. Question
§41 deals with
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 120
32. Question
Double proportion of Alcohol is required in the preparation of all medicinal substances except:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 33 of 120
33. Question
True surgical diseases are given in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 120
34. Question
Handbook of Principal symptoms is written by:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 120
35. Question
The real moral or mental malady is_____ by sensible friendly exhortations, consolatory arguments, etc.,
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 120
36. Question
Diet & regimen in acute diseases are given in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 120
37. Question
Which of the following miasm has symptom, desire for cold food, according to H. A. Robert :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 120
38. Question
“Abortion” rubric is given in which chapter of BTPB
Correct
◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female”Incorrect
◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female”Unattempted
◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female” -
Question 39 of 120
39. Question
The modified totality as per the repertory used is called
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 40 of 120
40. Question
The symptoms which throw off all the medicines that are not needed for the patient and bring only those medicines, which are required are
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 41 of 120
41. Question
The another word for chagnrin is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 120
42. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Fragmenta De viribus medica mentorum Positivis, the book written by Dr. Hahnemann
Reason (R):This book contained information of 28 remedies
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 43 of 120
43. Question
Berridge‘s Eye Repertory was published in the year
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 44 of 120
44. Question
A homoeopath should not have a 100 % dependency on Repertory because
A.All repertories are back dated
B.Every Repertory is incomplete
C.Many symptoms are not foundCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 120
45. Question
The Repertory which is written by Dr. Roger Zandvoort is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 120
46. Question
In which Aphorism, Dr. Hahnemann had advised not to ask leading questions.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 120
47. Question
Total number of Remedies in P. Sankarn’s Repertory
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 120
48. Question
Third graded medicines in Boenninghausens Therapeutic Pocket Book is written in________ letters carries three marks for.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 120
49. Question
Fourth edition of Dr. Kent’s repertory was published in year
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 120
50. Question
Total number of Remedies in Kishore Card Repertory
Correct
• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines.Incorrect
• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines.Unattempted
• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines. -
Question 51 of 120
51. Question
Homoeopathy, a manual for the non medical public by Dr. Boenninghausen was published in
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 52 of 120
52. Question
Who died as a result of wounds suffered during the Civil
War.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 120
53. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Dr. Boenninghausen’s purulent tuberculosis was treated by dr.weihe
Reason (R):Due to cure of Purulent tuberculosis by homoeopathic medicine Dr. C. V. Boenninghausen was converted towards homoeopathy.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 54 of 120
54. Question
Which symptoms must be considered last in the hierarchy of symptoms and study of repertory,
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 120
55. Question
______ is conversion of trituration to liquid.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 120
56. Question
Which includes the directions or instructions to a compounder or dispenser as to how he should dispense the remedy
Correct
The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section.Incorrect
The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section.Unattempted
The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section. -
Question 57 of 120
57. Question
“Given below are two statements
Statement I: Common name of Drosera is Sundew
Statement II: Season of Collection of Drosera is When in Flower
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 58 of 120
58. Question
Which is the science or subject of the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
Correct
• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicinesIncorrect
• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicinesUnattempted
• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicines -
Question 59 of 120
59. Question
“The physiological action of a drug is not its therapeutic or curative action. It is exactly the opposite of a ‘curative action’, and is never employed in homoeopathic therapeutic purpose”.
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Question 60 of 120
60. Question
ST Segment of ECG corresponds to which phase of action potential ?
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Question 61 of 120
61. Question
Baroreeaptors are located in ?
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Question 62 of 120
62. Question
Rate limiting enzyme in heme synthesis ?
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Question 63 of 120
63. Question
Oxygen saturation of venous blood is ?
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Question 64 of 120
64. Question
“Given below are two statements
Statement I:ATP is consumed at reactions catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase, pyruvate kinase.
Statement II:ATP is produced at reactions catalyzed by hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.Correct
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Question 65 of 120
65. Question
In patients with emphysematous bullae, total lung volume is best determined by?
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Question 66 of 120
66. Question
Gliadin (a component of gluten) is present in all except ?
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Question 67 of 120
67. Question
Out of the following, which ethnic group has the highest prevalence of IBD ?
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Question 68 of 120
68. Question
IBD is associated with all of the following except ?
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Question 69 of 120
69. Question
“Cobblestone mucosa” in CD is mainly seen in ?
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Question 70 of 120
70. Question
Most common bronchogenic carcinoma is
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Question 71 of 120
71. Question
Which of the following statements about lung carcinoma is true
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Question 72 of 120
72. Question
Which of the following systems is least likely to be affected in cystic fibrosis
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Question 73 of 120
73. Question
The most common cause of pulmonary infection in cystic fibrosis is
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Question 74 of 120
74. Question
Most common cause of heart block in infants is
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Question 75 of 120
75. Question
The type of arteritis which may lead to myocardial infarction in children is
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Question 76 of 120
76. Question
Rytand‘s murmur is seen in
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Question 77 of 120
77. Question
Which is not a high pitched heart sound
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Question 78 of 120
78. Question
Which of the following arrhythmia is most commonly associated with alcohol binge in the alcoholics
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Question 79 of 120
79. Question
Prosopagnosia is characterized by:
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Question 80 of 120
80. Question
The most common cause of seizures in a patient of AIDS is
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Question 81 of 120
81. Question
65-year-old man presents with anemia, posterior columan dysfunction, and plantor extensor. Which of the following is the likely cause
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Question 82 of 120
82. Question
Gastric affections of Cigar Maker
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Question 83 of 120
83. Question
Sensation of pulsation throughout the body, Pulsating pains , Cannot recognize localities
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Question 84 of 120
84. Question
Eradicates the tendency to erysipelas, Tendency to obesity
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Question 85 of 120
85. Question
Nux symptoms in females often met by
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Question 86 of 120
86. Question
Curative in disorders that exhibit interstitial inflammation and cellular proliferation in any part. Hypertrophy and induration of connective tissue.
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Question 87 of 120
87. Question
Falling of hair from injury
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Question 88 of 120
88. Question
Bodily and mental exhaustion; drowsiness after sea bathing
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Question 89 of 120
89. Question
Which among these is not a symptom of Sabadilla?
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Question 90 of 120
90. Question
Which among these is not a symptom of Ruta?
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Question 91 of 120
91. Question
Instable thirst even dreams of drinking water
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Question 92 of 120
92. Question
Dreams of great exertion rowing, swimming, working hard at his daily occupation
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Question 93 of 120
93. Question
All belongs to Rananculacea EXCEPT
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Question 94 of 120
94. Question
Constipation of children from intestinal atony
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Question 95 of 120
95. Question
Typhoid stools turn black and look like tar. Clay-colored stools with jaundice.
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Question 96 of 120
96. Question
Never-get-done feeling in stool
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Question 97 of 120
97. Question
Infantile diarrhoea, worse from boiled milk
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Question 98 of 120
98. Question
Malar bone pain during Menses
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Question 99 of 120
99. Question
Headache Instead of menses
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Question 100 of 120
100. Question
Acute fatty liver commonly seen in pregnancy at
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Question 101 of 120
101. Question
What is meant by Superfecundation?
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Question 102 of 120
102. Question
Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs at-
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Question 103 of 120
103. Question
Most Common type of Breech presentation
Correct
• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation.Incorrect
• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation.Unattempted
• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation. -
Question 104 of 120
104. Question
The umbilical cord lies alongside or below the presenting part after the ROM
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Question 105 of 120
105. Question
Locord‘s system is ?
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Question 106 of 120
106. Question
Two identical twins will not have same
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Question 107 of 120
107. Question
A lacerated wound over the scalp with clean-cut margins is most likely due to:
Correct
Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.
Known as incised-looking laceration.
Incorrect
Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.
Known as incised-looking laceration.
Unattempted
Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.
Known as incised-looking laceration.
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Question 108 of 120
108. Question
In a 16-year-old male, which of the following is the most reliable bone for age estimation?
Correct
A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.
B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.
C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.
D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.
Incorrect
A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.
B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.
C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.
D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.
Unattempted
A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.
B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.
C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.
D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.
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Question 109 of 120
109. Question
The nerve most at risk during ligation of the superior thyroid artery is:
Correct
Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery.Incorrect
Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery.Unattempted
Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery. -
Question 110 of 120
110. Question
In blunt abdominal trauma, the most commonly injured solid organ is:
Correct
Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen.Incorrect
Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen.Unattempted
Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen. -
Question 111 of 120
111. Question
Intracranial pressure is not raised during
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Question 112 of 120
112. Question
Most common impacted foreign body in esophagus in children is
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Question 113 of 120
113. Question
Characteristic site for development of venous leg ulcers is
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Question 114 of 120
114. Question
A 45-year-old man has sudden, severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and free gas under the diaphragm on X-ray. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct
Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.
Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.
Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.
Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.
Incorrect
Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.
Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.
Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.
Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.
Unattempted
Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.
Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.
Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.
Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.
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Question 115 of 120
115. Question
In a patient with 40% TBSA burns, the fluid requirement in the first 24 hours according to the Parkland formula is:
Correct
2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.
4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.
6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns
8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.
Incorrect
2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.
4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.
6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns
8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.
Unattempted
2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.
4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.
6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns
8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.
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Question 116 of 120
116. Question
The most common cause of superficial thrombophlebitis is
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Question 117 of 120
117. Question
In case of emergency if time does not permit to do proper grouping and cross matching or to wait for the
availability of the proper cross- matched blood then one can use blood group O.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 118 of 120
118. Question
The direction of flow of venous blood in conditions of valve incompetence affecting perforating veins of lower limb is
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Question 119 of 120
119. Question
Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of
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Question 120 of 120
120. Question
The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is
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