Mock test 17

Mock Test 17

Time limit: 0

0 of 120 questions completed

Questions:

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120

Information

You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.

Test is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:

Your results are here!! for" Mock Test 17 "

0 of 120 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0

Average score
Your score

Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Anatomy
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Community Medicine
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Forensic Medicine & Toxicology
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Gynaecology
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Materia Medica
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Obstetrics
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Organon
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Pathology
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Pharmacy
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Physiology & Biochemistry
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Practice of Medicine
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Repertory
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
Surgery
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0

Your result has been entered into leaderboard

Loading

Name: E-Mail:

Captcha:

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120

Answered
Review

Question 1 of 120

1. Question
Round ligament of uterus is derived from:
- Gonadal ridge
- Mullerian duct
- Gubernaculum
- Genital tubercle
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 2 of 120

2. Question
Which of the following correctly lists the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation?
- Trapezius medially, medial border of scapula laterally, latissimus dorsi inferiorly
- Trapezius laterally, lateral border of scapula medially, rhomboid major inferiorly
- Trapezius medially, lateral border of scapula laterally, teres major inferiorly
- Latissimus dorsi medially, trapezius laterally, teres minor inferiorly
Correct

Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius

Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula

Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi

Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.

Incorrect

Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius

Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula

Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi

Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.

Unattempted

Medial boundary → lateral border of trapezius

Lateral boundary → medial border of scapula

Inferior boundary → upper border of latissimus dorsi

Enlarged when the arm is crossed over the chest and scapula protracted → better lung sound auscultation.
Question 3 of 120

3. Question
Match the list basal ganglia lesion with the disease.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A - II, B - IV, C - I , D - III
- A - III, B - I , C - IV , D - II
- A - IV, B - II , C - I , D - III
- A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 4 of 120

4. Question
The adductor hiatus is an opening in which muscle?
- Adductor longus
- Adductor magnus
- Vastus medialis
- Sartorius
Correct

Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.

Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).

Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.

Incorrect

Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.

Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).

Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.

Unattempted

Adductor hiatus = gap between the adductor part and hamstring part of adductor magnus near the insertion.

Allows femoral vessels to pass from adductor canal into the popliteal fossa (becoming popliteal vessels).

Important for lower limb vascular anatomy and surgical approaches.
Question 5 of 120

5. Question
All are true about mediastinum EXCEPT:
A. Heart passes through superior mediastinum
B. Heart passes through middle mediastinum
C. Thymus remnant may present in middle mediastinum
D. Posterior boundary of posterior mediastinum corresponds to T1- T4 vertebrae
E. Lower border of anterior mediastinum is extended more than posterior mediastinum
- A, C, D, E only
- A, B, C, E only
- A & D only
- A & B only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 6 of 120

6. Question
Arrange the following in their ascending order of length:
A. Anal canal
B. Descending colon
C. Caecum
D. Rectum
E. Sigmoid colon
- B-C-A-D-E
- A-C-D-B-E
- B-D-E-C-A
- D-E-C-B-A
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 7 of 120

7. Question
In a granuloma, epithelioid cells and giant cells and derived from
- T – lymphocytes
- Monocyte – macrophages
- Mast cells
- B – lymphocytes
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 8 of 120

8. Question
Psammoma bodies are seen in all except:
- Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
- Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- Serous cystadenoma of ovary
- Meningioma
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 9 of 120

9. Question
Which of the following are Autosomal dominant disease?
A. Adult polycystic kidney
B. Neurofibromatosis-1
C. Neurofibromatosis-2
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
E. Phenylketonuria
- A, B, C, D only
- A, C, E only
- B, C, D only
- A, D, E only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 10 of 120

10. Question
Hemorrhagic infarction is seen in:
(A) Venous Thrombosis
(B) Thrombosis
(C) Septicaemia
(D) Embolism
(E) Central Venous Thrombosis
- A, B, C , D only
- A, B, D only
- B, C, D only
- A, D, E only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 11 of 120

11. Question
Mc Callum’s patch is diagnostic of:
- Infective endocarditis
- Rheumatic endocarditis
- Myocardial infarction
- Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 12 of 120

12. Question
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Seminoma is germ cell tumor with good prognosis.
Reason R: The tumor cells rarely have areas of necrosis and haemorrhage
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
- (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 13 of 120

13. Question
In vitro fertilization is indicated in:
- Tubal pathology
- Uterine dysfunction
- Ovarian pathology
- Azoospermia
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 14 of 120

14. Question
In a case of incontinence of urine, dye filled into the urinary bladder does not stain the pad in the vagina, yet the pad is soaked with clear urine. Most likely diagnosis is:
- VVF
- Uretero – vaginal fistula
- Urinary stress incontinence
- Urethero – vaginal fistula
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 15 of 120

15. Question
Angry looking vagina is seen in:
- Candida albicans
- H. vaginalis
- Syphilis
- Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 16 of 120

16. Question
Cervix: corpus ratio before puberty is:
- 1:2
- 2:1
- 1:3
- 3:1
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 17 of 120

17. Question
What are the different cell layers of a mature graafian follicle from outside inwards are:
(A) Discus proliferous
(B) Theca interna
(C) Granulosa Cell layers
(D) Theca externa
(E) Membrana granulosa
- D-B-E-C-A
- D-B-C-E-A
- C-D-B-E-A
- A-D-C-B-E
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 18 of 120

18. Question
Carriers are not found in:
- Typhoid
- Diphtheria
- Whooping cough
- Hepatitis B
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 19 of 120

19. Question
In a case-control study, the measure of association used is:
- Relative risk
- Attributable risk
- Odds ratio
- Incidence rate
Correct

Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.

Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.

Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.

Incorrect

Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.

Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.

Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.

Unattempted

Case-control studies → start with disease status and look back at exposure.

Cannot directly calculate incidence or relative risk.

Odds ratio (OR) is used and approximates relative risk when disease is rare.
Question 20 of 120

20. Question
A screening test has high sensitivity. Which of the following is most likely true?
- It has low false negatives
- It has low false positives
- It has low specificity
- It has high positive predictive value
Correct

Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).

High sensitivity → very few false negatives.

“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.

Incorrect

Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).

High sensitivity → very few false negatives.

“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.

Unattempted

Sensitivity = ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positives).

High sensitivity → very few false negatives.

“SNOUT” = Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease.
Question 21 of 120

21. Question
Health education regarding safe sexual practices in adolescents is an example of:
- Primordial prevention
- Primary prevention
- Secondary prevention
- Tertiary prevention
Correct

Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).

Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).

Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.

Incorrect

Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).

Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).

Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.

Unattempted

Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place (before they appear).

Primary prevention deals with existing risk factors to prevent disease onset (e.g., vaccination).

Here, health education in adolescents prevents the development of risk behaviors.
Question 22 of 120

22. Question
Nalgonda Technique is used for:
- Chlorination of water
- Defluoridation of water
- Iodization of salt
- Detoxification of contaminated mustard oil
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 23 of 120

23. Question
Which of the following is the example of local maladies of external kind?
- Whitlow
- Dislocation of bone
- Eruption on the lips
- Violent fever from contusions
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 24 of 120

24. Question
Electrotherapy deals with section …… of 6th edition:
- 285
- 285-286
- 286
- 284
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 25 of 120

25. Question
‘Medicament a gutta’ is the name of
- Decimal scale of potency
- Centesimal scale of potency
- 50 millesimal scale of potency
- Alcohol which is used as vehicle
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 26 of 120

26. Question
The reaction of organism to external and internal influences according to H.A. Roberts is called:
- Immunity
- Resistance
- Sensitivity
- Susceptibility
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 27 of 120

27. Question
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: The allopathic physician vainly imagines that he has conducted the treatment in conformity to his axiom, ‘causam tolle’
Statement II: The inflammatory irritation caused by disturbance in the vascular system can be treated with decillionth fold digestion of Aconite juice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 28 of 120

28. Question
The second edition of Organon of Medicine was published as a(n) ________ edition.
- Improved
- Augmented and improved
- Augmented
- Revised
Correct

The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.

Incorrect

The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.

Unattempted

The second edition was published in 1819 from Leipzig. It is specifically described as an “Augmented edition”, indicating a substantial expansion of the content from the first edition.
Question 29 of 120

29. Question
The sixth edition of Organon of Medicine was published how many years after Samuel Hahnemann‘s death?
- 38 years
- 50 years
- 78 years
- 100 years
Correct

The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”

Incorrect

The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”

Unattempted

The sixth edition of the Organon of Medicine was published in 1921. Samuel Hahnemann passed away in 1843. Therefore, this edition was published 78 years after his death. This specific edition was also at risk of being lost during two wars: the Franco-Prussian War (1870-71) and World War (1914-18), and was subsequently procured from Darup, leading to its reference as the “Darup Treasure”
Question 30 of 120

30. Question
Pseudo chronic disease is stated in –
- §77
- §78
- §80
- §81
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 31 of 120

31. Question
§41 deals with
- Repulsion
- Suspension
- Complex disease
- Similar disease
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 32 of 120

32. Question
Double proportion of Alcohol is required in the preparation of all medicinal substances except:
- Symphytum
- Viola tricolor
- Sulphur
- Oleander
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 33 of 120

33. Question
True surgical diseases are given in:
- § 186
- § 67
- § 172
- § 184
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 34 of 120

34. Question
Handbook of Principal symptoms is written by:
- Boenninghausen
- Hahnemann
- Jahr
- Stapf
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 35 of 120

35. Question
The real moral or mental malady is_____ by sensible friendly exhortations, consolatory arguments, etc.,
- Improved
- Aggravated
- Auxiliary measures
- No reaction is produced
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 36 of 120

36. Question
Diet & regimen in acute diseases are given in:
- § 259-263
- § 259-261
- § 262-263
- § 259-265
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 37 of 120

37. Question
Which of the following miasm has symptom, desire for cold food, according to H. A. Robert :
- Psora
- Sycosis
- Syphilis
- Tubercular
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 38 of 120

38. Question
“Abortion” rubric is given in which chapter of BTPB
- Menstruation
- Aggravation
- Sensations
- Genitalia Female
Correct

◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female”

Incorrect

◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female”

Unattempted

◦ In B.T.P.B. (Bœnninghausen‘s Therapeutic Pocket Book), the rubric “Abortion” is listed under the chapter “Menstruation”.
◦ In BBCR (Boger-Boenninghausen‘s Characteristics and Repertory), it is found under the chapter “Genitalia, female”.
◦ In Kent‘s Repertory, “Abortion” is also classified under the chapter “Genitalia-female”
Question 39 of 120

39. Question
The modified totality as per the repertory used is called
- Reportorial Totality
- PDF
- Individualizing
- EET
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 40 of 120

40. Question
The symptoms which throw off all the medicines that are not needed for the patient and bring only those medicines, which are required are
- Clinical Symptom
- Eliminating symptom
- Common symptom
- Alternating symptom
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 41 of 120

41. Question
The another word for chagnrin is
- Mortification
- Insult
- Calumniate
- Admonition
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 42 of 120

42. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Fragmenta De viribus medica mentorum Positivis, the book written by Dr. Hahnemann
Reason (R):This book contained information of 28 remedies
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
- (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 43 of 120

43. Question
Berridge‘s Eye Repertory was published in the year
- 1870
- 1873
- 1875
- 1878
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 44 of 120

44. Question
A homoeopath should not have a 100 % dependency on Repertory because
A.All repertories are back dated
B.Every Repertory is incomplete
C.Many symptoms are not found
- A and B only
- A,B and C only
- B and C only
- A and C only
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 45 of 120

45. Question
The Repertory which is written by Dr. Roger Zandvoort is
- Synthetic
- Synthesis
- Phoenix
- Complete
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 46 of 120

46. Question
In which Aphorism, Dr. Hahnemann had advised not to ask leading questions.
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 47 of 120

47. Question
Total number of Remedies in P. Sankarn’s Repertory
- 292
- 591
- 693
- 342
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 48 of 120

48. Question
Third graded medicines in Boenninghausens Therapeutic Pocket Book is written in________ letters carries three marks for.
- Capital
- Bold
- Italic
- Roman
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 49 of 120

49. Question
Fourth edition of Dr. Kent’s repertory was published in year
- 1897
- 1908
- 1935
- 1945
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 50 of 120

50. Question
Total number of Remedies in Kishore Card Repertory
- 342
- 693
- 1414
- 600
Correct

• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines.

Incorrect

• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines.

Unattempted

• William Jefferson Guernsey‘s First Card Repertory, which was available to the profession in 1892, contains 126 medicines.
• Dr. M.L. Tyler‘s Punched Card Repertory, published in 1912 and based on Kent‘s Repertory, contains 305 medicines.
• Dr. Welch & Houston‘s loose punched card Repertory, published in 1913 and also based on Kent‘s Repertory, includes 348 medicines.
• Dr. Field‘s Card Repertory, published in 1922, lists 360 medicines.
• Dr. Boger‘s Card Index & General Analysis, from 1924, contains 250 medicines.
• Dr. Braussalian‘s card Repertory, published in 1948, includes 640 medicines.
• P. Sankaran‘s Card Repertory, from 1950 and based on Boger‘s work, contains 292 medicines.
• Dr. Jugal Kishore‘s Card Repertory had its first edition in 1959 with 3500 cards, and its second edition in 1967 with nearly 10000 (9987) cards, including 600 medicines.
• Dr. Shashi Mohan Sharma‘s Card Repertory, developed in 1984, is based on Kent‘s Final General Repertory and uses 3000 cards. Kent‘s Final General Repertory by P. Schmidt & D.H. Chand contains 642 medicines.
Question 51 of 120

51. Question
Homoeopathy, a manual for the non medical public by Dr. Boenninghausen was published in
- 1800
- 1820
- 1833
- 1930
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 52 of 120

52. Question
Who died as a result of wounds suffered during the Civil
War.
- Boenninghausen
- Boger
- Constantine Lippe
- Constantine Hering
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 53 of 120

53. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):Dr. Boenninghausen’s purulent tuberculosis was treated by dr.weihe
Reason (R):Due to cure of Purulent tuberculosis by homoeopathic medicine Dr. C. V. Boenninghausen was converted towards homoeopathy.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
- (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 54 of 120

54. Question
Which symptoms must be considered last in the hierarchy of symptoms and study of repertory,
- Eliminating symptom
- Complete symptom
- Uncommon Symptom
- Common Symptom
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 55 of 120

55. Question
______ is conversion of trituration to liquid.
- Fluxion potency
- Straight potency
- Low Potency
- High Potency
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 56 of 120

56. Question
Which includes the directions or instructions to a compounder or dispenser as to how he should dispense the remedy
- Subscription
- Inscriptions
- Superscription
- Signature
Correct

The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section.

Incorrect

The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section.

Unattempted

The body of a prescription is commonly divided into four main parts:
• Superscription: This is the heading of the prescription. It includes the name and address of the patient, often preceded by the word ‘For‘. The patient‘s age and sex are also included. This section also features the symbol ‘Rx‘, which stands for the Latin word ‘recipe‘ meaning ‘to take‘. Originally, ‘Rx‘ was a symbol representing a prayer to Jupiter.
• Inscription: This constitutes the main body of the prescription. It specifies the name of the remedy, its potency, and its quantity. It also details the nature and quantity of the various vehicles to be used.
• Subscription: This section provides instructions and directions for the dispenser (compounder) on how to combine and dispense the remedy.
• Signature: This part contains the directions for the patient on how to take or use the medicine, its route of administration, and the time of intake. It also advises when to report for follow-up and includes any other instructions or cautions regarding diet and regimen. The physician‘s signature with the date and registration number is also part of this section.
Question 57 of 120

57. Question
“Given below are two statements
Statement I: Common name of Drosera is Sundew
Statement II: Season of Collection of Drosera is When in Flower
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 58 of 120

58. Question
Which is the science or subject of the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
- Pharmacognosy
- Pharmacopeia
- Pharmacodynamics
- Pharmacophobia
Correct

• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicines

Incorrect

• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicines

Unattempted

• Pharmacognosy:
◦ This term originates from the Latin word ‘gnosia‘, meaning ‘the knowledge of drugs‘.
◦ It is the science that deals with crude drugs – medicinal substances in their natural or unprepared state, obtained from vegetable and animal sources
• Pharmacopoeia:
◦ The word ‘pharmacopoeia‘ originates from two Greek words: ‘pharmakon‘, meaning ‘a drug‘, and ‘poies‘, meaning ‘to make‘.
◦ It is a standard authoritative book that contains a list of drugs and medicines, including information about their sources, habitats, descriptions, collections, and identification
• Pharmacodynamics:
◦ This is the science or subject that deals with the powers or effects of drugs and medicines on human beings in health and disease.
◦ In homoeopathy, pharmacodynamics holds special significance as it specifically focuses on the ‘dynamic action‘ of drugs
• Pharmacophobia:
◦ This term refers to a morbid dread of medicines
Question 59 of 120

59. Question
“The physiological action of a drug is not its therapeutic or curative action. It is exactly the opposite of a ‘curative action’, and is never employed in homoeopathic therapeutic purpose”.
- Stuart close
- Constantine Hering
- Kent
- Hahnemann
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 60 of 120

60. Question
ST Segment of ECG corresponds to which phase of action potential ?
- Phase 0
- Phase 1
- Phase 2
- Phase 3
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 61 of 120

61. Question
Baroreeaptors are located in ?
- Tunica media
- Tunica intima
- Tunica adventitia
- Tunica externa
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 62 of 120

62. Question
Rate limiting enzyme in heme synthesis ?
- ALA Synthase
- Hmg coa reductase
- ALA dehydratase
- Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 63 of 120

63. Question
Oxygen saturation of venous blood is ?
- 70%
- 30%
- 90%
- 100%
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 64 of 120

64. Question
“Given below are two statements
Statement I:ATP is consumed at reactions catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase, pyruvate kinase.
Statement II:ATP is produced at reactions catalyzed by hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
- Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 65 of 120

65. Question
In patients with emphysematous bullae, total lung volume is best determined by?
- Spirometry
- Helium dilution method
- Plathysmography
- Chromatography
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 66 of 120

66. Question
Gliadin (a component of gluten) is present in all except ?
- Wheat
- Barley
- Rice
- Oats
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 67 of 120

67. Question
Out of the following, which ethnic group has the highest prevalence of IBD ?
- Jewish
- African American
- Hispanic
- Asian
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 68 of 120

68. Question
IBD is associated with all of the following except ?
- Turner’s syndrome
- Down syndrome
- Selective IgA deficiency
- Hereditary angioedema
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 69 of 120

69. Question
“Cobblestone mucosa” in CD is mainly seen in ?
- Sigmoid colon
- Transverse colon
- Ileum
- Rectum
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 70 of 120

70. Question
Most common bronchogenic carcinoma is
- Small cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Mixed cell carcinoma
- Adenocarcinoma
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 71 of 120

71. Question
Which of the following statements about lung carcinoma is true
- Squammous cell variant accounts for 70% of all lung cancers
- Oat cell variant typically present with cavitation
- Oat cell variant is typically associated with hilar adenopathy
- Adenocarcinoma variant is typically central in location
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 72 of 120

72. Question
Which of the following systems is least likely to be affected in cystic fibrosis
- Respiratory
- Genitourinary
- Hepatobilary
- Endocrine
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 73 of 120

73. Question
The most common cause of pulmonary infection in cystic fibrosis is
- Pseudomonas Aeroginosa
- Staphylococcus Aureus
- Nontuberculous mycobacteria
- Pneumocystis carinii
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 74 of 120

74. Question
Most common cause of heart block in infants is
- SLE
- Surgery for congentital heart disease
- Viral myocarditis
- Rheumatic fever
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 75 of 120

75. Question
The type of arteritis which may lead to myocardial infarction in children is
- Polyarteritis nodosa
- Takayasu arteritis
- Kawasaki disease
- Microscopic polyangitis
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 76 of 120

76. Question
Rytand‘s murmur is seen in
- A-V Block
- Mitral stenosis
- Aortic stenosis
- Aortic regurgitation
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 77 of 120

77. Question
Which is not a high pitched heart sound
- Mid systolic click
- Pericardial shudder
- Opening snap
- Tumor plop sound
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 78 of 120

78. Question
Which of the following arrhythmia is most commonly associated with alcohol binge in the alcoholics
- Ventricular fibrillations
- Ventricular premature contractions
- Atrial flutter
- Atrial fibrilation
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 79 of 120

79. Question
Prosopagnosia is characterized by:
- Inability to read
- Inability to identify faces
- Inability to write
- Inability to speak
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 80 of 120

80. Question
The most common cause of seizures in a patient of AIDS is
- Toxoplasmosis
- Cryptococcal meningitis
- Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
- CNS lymphoma
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 81 of 120

81. Question
65-year-old man presents with anemia, posterior columan dysfunction, and plantor extensor. Which of the following is the likely cause
- Tabes dorsalis
- Frederich‘s ataxia
- Vitamin B1 deficiency
- Vitamin B 12 deficiency
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 82 of 120

82. Question
Gastric affections of Cigar Maker
- Gelsemium
- Ignatia
- Tabacum
- Theridion
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 83 of 120

83. Question
Sensation of pulsation throughout the body, Pulsating pains , Cannot recognize localities
- Glonine
- Aconite
- Millefolium
- Veratrum Viridae
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 84 of 120

84. Question
Eradicates the tendency to erysipelas, Tendency to obesity
- Rhustox
- Graphites
- Sulphur
- Croton toig
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 85 of 120

85. Question
Nux symptoms in females often met by
- Grindelia
- Sepia
- Ignatia
- Gratiola
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 86 of 120

86. Question
Curative in disorders that exhibit interstitial inflammation and cellular proliferation in any part. Hypertrophy and induration of connective tissue.
- Croton tig
- Hydrocotyle
- Apis Mellifica
- Hepar
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 87 of 120

87. Question
Falling of hair from injury
- Hypericum
- Arnica
- Symphytum
- Sulphuric acid
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 88 of 120

88. Question
Bodily and mental exhaustion; drowsiness after sea bathing
- Limulus
- Mag mur
- Anti crud
- Rhustox
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 89 of 120

89. Question
Which among these is not a symptom of Sabadilla?
- Headache from worms.
- Dryness of mouth
- Delirium during intermittents
- Parchment-like dryness of skin.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 90 of 120

90. Question
Which among these is not a symptom of Ruta?
- Lameness, stiffness and pain on first moving after rest, or on getting up in the morning, > by walking or continued motion
- Restless, turns and changes position frequently when lying
- Bruised lame sensation all over, as after a fall or blow; worse in limbs and joints
- Backache, relieved by lying on the back.
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 91 of 120

91. Question
Instable thirst even dreams of drinking water
- Medorrhinum
- Lycopodium
- Nat Sulph
- Colchicum
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 92 of 120

92. Question
Dreams of great exertion rowing, swimming, working hard at his daily occupation
- Nat mur
- Rhustox
- Psorinum
- Argentum nit
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 93 of 120

93. Question
All belongs to Rananculacea EXCEPT
- Abratonum
- Actea Racemosa
- Adonis
- Aconite
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 94 of 120

94. Question
Constipation of children from intestinal atony
- Collinsonia
- Dolichos
- Jalapa
- Nitric acid
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 95 of 120

95. Question
Typhoid stools turn black and look like tar. Clay-colored stools with jaundice.
- Leptandra virginica
- Mag Carb
- Mag mur
- Medorrhinum
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 96 of 120

96. Question
Never-get-done feeling in stool
- Merc sol
- Nat Carb
- Nux Mosc
- Nux Vom
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 97 of 120

97. Question
Infantile diarrhoea, worse from boiled milk
- Sepia
- Aloe socortina
- Nat carb
- Rumex
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 98 of 120

98. Question
Malar bone pain during Menses
- Ammonicum Carb
- Stannum met
- Muriatic acid
- Staphysagria
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 99 of 120

99. Question
Headache Instead of menses
- Allium Cepa
- Lachesis
- Zincum met
- Glonine
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 100 of 120

100. Question
Acute fatty liver commonly seen in pregnancy at
- Intrapartum
- Immediate postpartum
- 1st trimester
- 3rd trimester
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 101 of 120

101. Question
What is meant by Superfecundation?
- Fertilization of two or more ova in one intercourse
- Fertilization of ova and then it‘s division
- Fertilization of second ovum first being implanted
- Fertilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 102 of 120

102. Question
Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs at-
- Within 5 months
- Within 24 months
- Within 6 weeks
- Within 7 days
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 103 of 120

103. Question
Most Common type of Breech presentation
- Complete Breech
- Frank Breech
- Extended Breech
- Footling
Correct

• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation.

Incorrect

• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation.

Unattempted

• Frank Breech (Extended Breech):
◦ In this type, the thighs are flexed on the trunk, and the legs are extended at the knee joints.
◦ The presenting part consists solely of the two buttocks and external genitalia.
◦ It is the most common variety, accounting for approximately 50–75% of breech presentations.
◦ This type is commonly seen in primigravidae, occurring in about 70% of cases due to a tight abdominal wall, good uterine tone, and early engagement of the breech.
◦ The frank breech is considered the most favourable for vaginal delivery among breech types.
• Other Types of Breech Presentation:
◦ Complete (Flexed breech): The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained, with both thighs and legs flexed at the hips and knees. The presenting part includes the buttocks, external genitalia, and two feet. This type is commonly present in multiparae, accounting for about 10%.
◦ Footling presentation: Both thighs and legs are partially extended, with one or both legs extended below the buttocks, making the legs the presenting part. This accounts for approximately 20% of breech cases. It carries the highest chance of cord prolapse.
◦ Knee presentation: Thighs are extended, but the knees are flexed, bringing the knees down to present at the brim. This and footling varieties are less common.
Overall, breech presentation is the most common fetal malpresentation, accounting for about 3-4% at term. Prematurity is the most frequent cause of breech presentation.
Question 104 of 120

104. Question
The umbilical cord lies alongside or below the presenting part after the ROM
- Cord prolapse
- Cord presentation
- Occult prolapse
- Compound presentation
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 105 of 120

105. Question
Locord‘s system is ?
- Podography
- Dactylography
- Poroscopy
- Cheiloscopy
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 106 of 120

106. Question
Two identical twins will not have same
- Fingerprints
- DNA copies
- Iris color
- Blood group
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 107 of 120

107. Question
A lacerated wound over the scalp with clean-cut margins is most likely due to:
- Sharp weapon injury
- Heavy blunt weapon injury
- Fall on a sharp object
- Crush injury
Correct

Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.

Known as incised-looking laceration.

Incorrect

Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.

Known as incised-looking laceration.

Unattempted

Scalp is stretched tightly over the skull → blunt force can split skin along tension lines → looks like incised wound but is actually lacerated.

Known as incised-looking laceration.
Question 108 of 120

108. Question
In a 16-year-old male, which of the following is the most reliable bone for age estimation?
- Clavicle medial end
- Iliac crest
- Lower end of radius
- Upper end of humerus
Correct

A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.

B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.

C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.

D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.

Incorrect

A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.

B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.

C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.

D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.

Unattempted

A. Clavicle medial end – Correct. Medial epiphysis fuses last (22–25 years), useful for late adolescence.

B. Iliac crest – Ossifies around 14–16 years, fuses ~20–23 years, but less reliable compared to clavicle for this age group.

C. Lower end of radius – Fuses by ~18 years; useful for earlier teens, not most reliable for late adolescence.

D. Upper end of humerus – Fuses by 20–21 years, but clavicle is still considered better for final age confirmation.
Question 109 of 120

109. Question
The nerve most at risk during ligation of the superior thyroid artery is:
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve
- External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
- Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
- Hypoglossal nerve
Correct

Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery.

Incorrect

Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery.

Unattempted

Recurrent laryngeal nerve – Runs close to inferior thyroid artery, not superior.
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Correct. Runs close to superior thyroid artery near upper pole of thyroid; at risk during ligation → affects cricothyroid muscle (voice pitch).
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve – Purely sensory; enters thyrohyoid membrane, not related to artery ligation.
Hypoglossal nerve – Higher up in the neck; injury here causes tongue deviation, not common in thyroid surgery.
Question 110 of 120

110. Question
In blunt abdominal trauma, the most commonly injured solid organ is:
- Liver
- Kidney
- Spleen
- Pancreas
Correct

Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen.

Incorrect

Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen.

Unattempted

Liver – Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma, not blunt.
Kidney – Injured in flank trauma, but less common than spleen in blunt injury.
Spleen – Correct. Large, vascular, in LUQ; most common solid organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma (esp. road traffic accidents).
Pancreas – Retroperitoneal; injury usually from severe crush to epigastrium, rare compared to spleen.
Question 111 of 120

111. Question
Intracranial pressure is not raised during
- Hyperventilation
- Status epilepticus
- Head injury
- Subdural hematoma
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 112 of 120

112. Question
Most common impacted foreign body in esophagus in children is
- Marble
- Krayon
- Food product
- Coin
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 113 of 120

113. Question
Characteristic site for development of venous leg ulcers is
- Skin of gaiter region
- Behind lateral malleolus
- Shin of tibia
- Medial aspect of knee
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 114 of 120

114. Question
A 45-year-old man has sudden, severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and free gas under the diaphragm on X-ray. The most likely diagnosis is:
- Perforated peptic ulcer
- Acute pancreatitis
- Mesenteric ischemia
- Small bowel obstruction
Correct

Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.

Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.

Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.

Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.

Incorrect

Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.

Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.

Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.

Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.

Unattempted

Perforated peptic ulcer: Correct. Sudden onset peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum on X-ray is classic.

Acute pancreatitis: Epigastric pain radiating to back; no free gas unless secondary perforation occurs.

Mesenteric ischemia: Pain out of proportion to physical findings; free gas only if perforation develops late.

Small bowel obstruction: Causes distension and air-fluid levels, but free subdiaphragmatic gas is absent unless perforated.
Question 115 of 120

115. Question
In a patient with 40% TBSA burns, the fluid requirement in the first 24 hours according to the Parkland formula is:
- 2 × body weight × %TBSA
- 4 × body weight × %TBSA
- 6 × body weight × %TBSA
- 8 × body weight × %TBSA
Correct

2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.

4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.

6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns

8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.

Incorrect

2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.

4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.

6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns

8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.

Unattempted

2 × body weight × %TBSA: Not standard; underestimates fluids and risks under-resuscitation.

4 × body weight × %TBSA: Correct. Parkland formula = 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (Lactated Ringer’s). Give half in first 8 hours from time of burn, remainder over next 16 hours.

6 × body weight × %TBSA: Sometimes used in modified formulas for electrical burns

8 × body weight × %TBSA: Overestimates fluids, risking pulmonary edema and compartment syndrome.
Question 116 of 120

116. Question
The most common cause of superficial thrombophlebitis is
- Intravenous infusion
- Varicosities
- Infection
- Trauma
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 117 of 120

117. Question
In case of emergency if time does not permit to do proper grouping and cross matching or to wait for the
availability of the proper cross- matched blood then one can use blood group O.
- AB negative
- AB positive
- O positive
- O negative
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 118 of 120

118. Question
The direction of flow of venous blood in conditions of valve incompetence affecting perforating veins of lower limb is
- Deep to superficial
- Along osmotic gradient
- Superficial to deep
- Along gravity
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 119 of 120

119. Question
Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of
- Back pain
- Arteriovenous fistula
- Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toe
- Intermittent claudication
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted
Question 120 of 120

120. Question
The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is
- Ipsilateral papillary dilatation
- Contralateral papillary dilatation
- Hemiparesis
- Altered mental status
Correct

Incorrect

Unattempted