Physiology 2
Physiology 2
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Regarding dead space volume in a normal individual:
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
True about inspiration: The intrapleural pressure becomes:
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
True about normal expiration
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
Surfactant is produced by –
Correct
Type 2 pneumocytes, also known as great alveolar cells, are specialized cells that line the alveoli of the lungs. Their primary function is to produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant, a lipoprotein complex. This surfactant is crucial for reducing the surface tension inside the alveoli. By lowering surface tension, it prevents the alveoli from collapsing during exhalation and makes it easier for the lungs to inflate.
a) Pulmonary alveolar macrophages: These are the immune cells of the alveoli, responsible for engulfing and removing foreign particles like dust and bacteria. They do not produce surfactant.
b) Plasma cells: These are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. They are not involved in the production of surfactant.
c) Type 1 pneumocytes: These are thin, flat cells that make up the majority of the alveolar surface. Their primary function is to facilitate gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. They are not involved in surfactant production.
Incorrect
Type 2 pneumocytes, also known as great alveolar cells, are specialized cells that line the alveoli of the lungs. Their primary function is to produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant, a lipoprotein complex. This surfactant is crucial for reducing the surface tension inside the alveoli. By lowering surface tension, it prevents the alveoli from collapsing during exhalation and makes it easier for the lungs to inflate.
a) Pulmonary alveolar macrophages: These are the immune cells of the alveoli, responsible for engulfing and removing foreign particles like dust and bacteria. They do not produce surfactant.
b) Plasma cells: These are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. They are not involved in the production of surfactant.
c) Type 1 pneumocytes: These are thin, flat cells that make up the majority of the alveolar surface. Their primary function is to facilitate gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. They are not involved in surfactant production.
Unattempted
Type 2 pneumocytes, also known as great alveolar cells, are specialized cells that line the alveoli of the lungs. Their primary function is to produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant, a lipoprotein complex. This surfactant is crucial for reducing the surface tension inside the alveoli. By lowering surface tension, it prevents the alveoli from collapsing during exhalation and makes it easier for the lungs to inflate.
a) Pulmonary alveolar macrophages: These are the immune cells of the alveoli, responsible for engulfing and removing foreign particles like dust and bacteria. They do not produce surfactant.
b) Plasma cells: These are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. They are not involved in the production of surfactant.
c) Type 1 pneumocytes: These are thin, flat cells that make up the majority of the alveolar surface. Their primary function is to facilitate gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries. They are not involved in surfactant production.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
Physiological dead space is calculated by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to as:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
Spirometry can demonstrate and measure all of the following except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
Regarding pulmonary function test all are true, except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
Oxygen saturation of venous blood is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Increased oxygen delivery to tissues in response to increased CO2 is:
Correct
The Bohr effect describes how the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is affected by the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. When the concentration of CO2 and H+ increases (e.g., in metabolically active tissues), hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen decreases. This causes the hemoglobin to release more of its bound oxygen, ensuring that active tissues receive the oxygen they need. This phenomenon is represented as a rightward shift on the oxygen dissociation curve. 2. Haldane effect: The Haldane effect is the inverse relationship. It states that the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin decreases the hemoglobin‘s affinity for CO2. This facilitates the removal of CO2 from the blood in the lungs, where oxygen is abundant.
3. Hamburger effect / 4. Chloride shift: The Hamburger effect is another name for the chloride shift. This is the movement of chloride ions (Cl −) into red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions (HCO3−). This process helps to maintain electrical neutrality as CO2 is transported from the tissues to the lungs, but it is not the primary mechanism for oxygen delivery.Incorrect
The Bohr effect describes how the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is affected by the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. When the concentration of CO2 and H+ increases (e.g., in metabolically active tissues), hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen decreases. This causes the hemoglobin to release more of its bound oxygen, ensuring that active tissues receive the oxygen they need. This phenomenon is represented as a rightward shift on the oxygen dissociation curve. 2. Haldane effect: The Haldane effect is the inverse relationship. It states that the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin decreases the hemoglobin‘s affinity for CO2. This facilitates the removal of CO2 from the blood in the lungs, where oxygen is abundant.
3. Hamburger effect / 4. Chloride shift: The Hamburger effect is another name for the chloride shift. This is the movement of chloride ions (Cl −) into red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions (HCO3−). This process helps to maintain electrical neutrality as CO2 is transported from the tissues to the lungs, but it is not the primary mechanism for oxygen delivery.Unattempted
The Bohr effect describes how the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is affected by the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. When the concentration of CO2 and H+ increases (e.g., in metabolically active tissues), hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen decreases. This causes the hemoglobin to release more of its bound oxygen, ensuring that active tissues receive the oxygen they need. This phenomenon is represented as a rightward shift on the oxygen dissociation curve. 2. Haldane effect: The Haldane effect is the inverse relationship. It states that the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin decreases the hemoglobin‘s affinity for CO2. This facilitates the removal of CO2 from the blood in the lungs, where oxygen is abundant.
3. Hamburger effect / 4. Chloride shift: The Hamburger effect is another name for the chloride shift. This is the movement of chloride ions (Cl −) into red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions (HCO3−). This process helps to maintain electrical neutrality as CO2 is transported from the tissues to the lungs, but it is not the primary mechanism for oxygen delivery. -
Question 11 of 50
11. Question
CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of:
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen due to:
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
The factor responsible for the left shift of Hb-O2 dissociation curve is:
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
True about Hb dissociation curve is:
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
Arterial O2 content is reduced in one of the following
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
Oxygen therapy is least useful in:
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
Which of the following conditions leads to tissue hypoxia without alteration of oxygen content of blood?
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
Hering-Breuer reflex is an increase in
Correct
The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective reflex that prevents over-inflation of the lungs. When the lungs are stretched during deep inspiration, stretch receptors in the bronchiole walls are activated. These receptors send inhibitory signals to the inspiratory centers in the brainstem, which terminates inspiration and allows for expiration to occur. Therefore, the reflex acts to increase the duration of expiration and reduce the duration of inspiration. It is a more significant reflex in newborns than in adults and is thought to play a role in regulating breathing rhythm.
Incorrect
The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective reflex that prevents over-inflation of the lungs. When the lungs are stretched during deep inspiration, stretch receptors in the bronchiole walls are activated. These receptors send inhibitory signals to the inspiratory centers in the brainstem, which terminates inspiration and allows for expiration to occur. Therefore, the reflex acts to increase the duration of expiration and reduce the duration of inspiration. It is a more significant reflex in newborns than in adults and is thought to play a role in regulating breathing rhythm.
Unattempted
The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective reflex that prevents over-inflation of the lungs. When the lungs are stretched during deep inspiration, stretch receptors in the bronchiole walls are activated. These receptors send inhibitory signals to the inspiratory centers in the brainstem, which terminates inspiration and allows for expiration to occur. Therefore, the reflex acts to increase the duration of expiration and reduce the duration of inspiration. It is a more significant reflex in newborns than in adults and is thought to play a role in regulating breathing rhythm.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
Depth of inspiration controlled by:
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Incorrect
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
Gas used to measure the diffusion capacity of lung
Correct
The diffusion capacity of the lung, also known as the Diffusing Capacity of the Lung for Carbon Monoxide (DL CO), is measured using a small, trace amount of carbon monoxide (CO). This gas is used because it has a very high affinity for hemoglobin (approximately 210 times greater than oxygen), and its uptake is almost entirely limited by its diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. By measuring how much of the inhaled CO is absorbed into the blood, clinicians can assess the integrity of the gas exchange barrier and the amount of hemoglobin available to bind with gases.
Incorrect
The diffusion capacity of the lung, also known as the Diffusing Capacity of the Lung for Carbon Monoxide (DL CO), is measured using a small, trace amount of carbon monoxide (CO). This gas is used because it has a very high affinity for hemoglobin (approximately 210 times greater than oxygen), and its uptake is almost entirely limited by its diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. By measuring how much of the inhaled CO is absorbed into the blood, clinicians can assess the integrity of the gas exchange barrier and the amount of hemoglobin available to bind with gases.
Unattempted
The diffusion capacity of the lung, also known as the Diffusing Capacity of the Lung for Carbon Monoxide (DL CO), is measured using a small, trace amount of carbon monoxide (CO). This gas is used because it has a very high affinity for hemoglobin (approximately 210 times greater than oxygen), and its uptake is almost entirely limited by its diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. By measuring how much of the inhaled CO is absorbed into the blood, clinicians can assess the integrity of the gas exchange barrier and the amount of hemoglobin available to bind with gases.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration:
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
The following factors shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, except –
Correct
An oxygen dissociation curve shows the relationship between oxygen saturation and the partial pressure of oxygen. A rightward shift means that hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen is decreased, so it releases oxygen more readily to the tissues.
Hypoxia: A low oxygen concentration in the tissues promotes a rightward shift, aiding oxygen delivery. This is part of the body‘s compensatory mechanism.
Fever: An increase in body temperature causes a rightward shift, as higher temperatures weaken the bond between hemoglobin and oxygen.
Increase in 2,3-DPG: An increase in 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is a key adaptation to chronic hypoxia (like living at high altitude). 2,3-DPG binds to deoxygenated hemoglobin, lowering its affinity for oxygen and promoting its release to the tissues.
However, Alkalosis, which is an increase in blood pH, has the opposite effect. It increases hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen, causing the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, making it harder for hemoglobin to release oxygen to the tissues.
Incorrect
An oxygen dissociation curve shows the relationship between oxygen saturation and the partial pressure of oxygen. A rightward shift means that hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen is decreased, so it releases oxygen more readily to the tissues.
Hypoxia: A low oxygen concentration in the tissues promotes a rightward shift, aiding oxygen delivery. This is part of the body‘s compensatory mechanism.
Fever: An increase in body temperature causes a rightward shift, as higher temperatures weaken the bond between hemoglobin and oxygen.
Increase in 2,3-DPG: An increase in 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is a key adaptation to chronic hypoxia (like living at high altitude). 2,3-DPG binds to deoxygenated hemoglobin, lowering its affinity for oxygen and promoting its release to the tissues.
However, Alkalosis, which is an increase in blood pH, has the opposite effect. It increases hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen, causing the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, making it harder for hemoglobin to release oxygen to the tissues.
Unattempted
An oxygen dissociation curve shows the relationship between oxygen saturation and the partial pressure of oxygen. A rightward shift means that hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen is decreased, so it releases oxygen more readily to the tissues.
Hypoxia: A low oxygen concentration in the tissues promotes a rightward shift, aiding oxygen delivery. This is part of the body‘s compensatory mechanism.
Fever: An increase in body temperature causes a rightward shift, as higher temperatures weaken the bond between hemoglobin and oxygen.
Increase in 2,3-DPG: An increase in 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is a key adaptation to chronic hypoxia (like living at high altitude). 2,3-DPG binds to deoxygenated hemoglobin, lowering its affinity for oxygen and promoting its release to the tissues.
However, Alkalosis, which is an increase in blood pH, has the opposite effect. It increases hemoglobin‘s affinity for oxygen, causing the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, making it harder for hemoglobin to release oxygen to the tissues.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
A person unacclimatized develops pulmonary edema within:
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Incorrect
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
In caissons disease pain in joint is because of:
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Incorrect
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
Features of Neuroglia cells include all except:
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Incorrect
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
Dysmetria is seen in lesion of
Correct
Dysmetria is a neurological symptom characterized by a lack of coordination in muscle movements. It is a type of cerebellar ataxia. A person with dysmetria has difficulty properly gauging the distance or range of a movement, often overshooting or undershooting a target. For example, when reaching for a cup, a person with dysmetria might extend their hand too far past the cup (hypermetria) or stop short of it (hypometria).
Incorrect
Dysmetria is a neurological symptom characterized by a lack of coordination in muscle movements. It is a type of cerebellar ataxia. A person with dysmetria has difficulty properly gauging the distance or range of a movement, often overshooting or undershooting a target. For example, when reaching for a cup, a person with dysmetria might extend their hand too far past the cup (hypermetria) or stop short of it (hypometria).
Unattempted
Dysmetria is a neurological symptom characterized by a lack of coordination in muscle movements. It is a type of cerebellar ataxia. A person with dysmetria has difficulty properly gauging the distance or range of a movement, often overshooting or undershooting a target. For example, when reaching for a cup, a person with dysmetria might extend their hand too far past the cup (hypermetria) or stop short of it (hypometria).
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
In stretch reflex, the stimulus is
Correct
The stretch reflex, also known as the myotatic reflex, is a protective mechanism that prevents muscles from being overstretched. The stimulus for this reflex is a change in muscle length.
Muscle Spindles: The reflex is initiated by specialized sensory receptors called muscle spindles, which are located within the muscle belly. These spindles are exquisitely sensitive to the magnitude and rate of muscle stretch.
Mechanism: When a muscle is stretched (lengthened), the muscle spindle is also stretched. This sends a signal via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. In a monosynaptic reflex, this signal directly activates motor neurons that cause the stretched muscle to contract, resisting the change in length. This is what you see in a patellar tendon reflex (knee-jerk reflex), where tapping the tendon causes a rapid stretch of the quadriceps muscle, which then contracts.
Incorrect
The stretch reflex, also known as the myotatic reflex, is a protective mechanism that prevents muscles from being overstretched. The stimulus for this reflex is a change in muscle length.
Muscle Spindles: The reflex is initiated by specialized sensory receptors called muscle spindles, which are located within the muscle belly. These spindles are exquisitely sensitive to the magnitude and rate of muscle stretch.
Mechanism: When a muscle is stretched (lengthened), the muscle spindle is also stretched. This sends a signal via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. In a monosynaptic reflex, this signal directly activates motor neurons that cause the stretched muscle to contract, resisting the change in length. This is what you see in a patellar tendon reflex (knee-jerk reflex), where tapping the tendon causes a rapid stretch of the quadriceps muscle, which then contracts.
Unattempted
The stretch reflex, also known as the myotatic reflex, is a protective mechanism that prevents muscles from being overstretched. The stimulus for this reflex is a change in muscle length.
Muscle Spindles: The reflex is initiated by specialized sensory receptors called muscle spindles, which are located within the muscle belly. These spindles are exquisitely sensitive to the magnitude and rate of muscle stretch.
Mechanism: When a muscle is stretched (lengthened), the muscle spindle is also stretched. This sends a signal via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. In a monosynaptic reflex, this signal directly activates motor neurons that cause the stretched muscle to contract, resisting the change in length. This is what you see in a patellar tendon reflex (knee-jerk reflex), where tapping the tendon causes a rapid stretch of the quadriceps muscle, which then contracts.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
Excitatory Neurotransmitters are:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
Which one of the following sensory receptors is found in epidermis?
Correct
Merkel discs are slow-adapting receptors located in the epidermis. They are responsible for detecting sustained light touch and pressure.
Meissner‘s corpuscles are rapidly-adapting receptors located in the dermis, particularly in the papillary layer. They are responsible for detecting light touch and vibrations.
Ruffini endings are slow-adapting receptors found deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting stretch and sustained pressure.
Pacinian corpuscles are very rapidly-adapting receptors located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting deep pressure and high-frequency vibrations.
Incorrect
Merkel discs are slow-adapting receptors located in the epidermis. They are responsible for detecting sustained light touch and pressure.
Meissner‘s corpuscles are rapidly-adapting receptors located in the dermis, particularly in the papillary layer. They are responsible for detecting light touch and vibrations.
Ruffini endings are slow-adapting receptors found deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting stretch and sustained pressure.
Pacinian corpuscles are very rapidly-adapting receptors located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting deep pressure and high-frequency vibrations.
Unattempted
Merkel discs are slow-adapting receptors located in the epidermis. They are responsible for detecting sustained light touch and pressure.
Meissner‘s corpuscles are rapidly-adapting receptors located in the dermis, particularly in the papillary layer. They are responsible for detecting light touch and vibrations.
Ruffini endings are slow-adapting receptors found deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting stretch and sustained pressure.
Pacinian corpuscles are very rapidly-adapting receptors located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. They are responsible for detecting deep pressure and high-frequency vibrations.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest at:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
Loss of proprioception and fine touch:
Correct
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
All are features of Brown-Sequard syndrome except:
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Incorrect
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
True about Visceral pain:
A.It is poorly localized
B.Resembles “fast pain” produced by noxious stimulation of the skin
C.Causes relaxation of nearby skeletal
muscles.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal
spasm by:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
Pyramids are formed by –
Correct
The term “pyramids” in neuroanatomy refers to two prominent ridges on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem. These structures are formed by the axons of the corticospinal tracts, which carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. These tracts are crucial for voluntary, skilled movements of the limbs. As they descend through the medulla, they form the visible pyramids.
Incorrect
The term “pyramids” in neuroanatomy refers to two prominent ridges on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem. These structures are formed by the axons of the corticospinal tracts, which carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. These tracts are crucial for voluntary, skilled movements of the limbs. As they descend through the medulla, they form the visible pyramids.
Unattempted
The term “pyramids” in neuroanatomy refers to two prominent ridges on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem. These structures are formed by the axons of the corticospinal tracts, which carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. These tracts are crucial for voluntary, skilled movements of the limbs. As they descend through the medulla, they form the visible pyramids.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
The function of the neocerebellum is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
Nonshivering thermogenesis is due to
Correct
Non-shivering thermogenesis is the body‘s mechanism for producing heat without muscle contractions. This process is primarily mediated by the hormone norepinephrine, which is released from the sympathetic nervous system. Norepinephrine acts on brown adipose tissue (brown fat), a specialized type of fat found particularly in infants and hibernating animals. When stimulated by norepinephrine, brown fat cells rapidly metabolize fat and glucose, a process that generates a significant amount of heat. This mechanism is crucial for maintaining body temperature in cold environments, especially in newborns who have a high surface area-to-volume ratio and cannot shiver effectively.
Incorrect
Non-shivering thermogenesis is the body‘s mechanism for producing heat without muscle contractions. This process is primarily mediated by the hormone norepinephrine, which is released from the sympathetic nervous system. Norepinephrine acts on brown adipose tissue (brown fat), a specialized type of fat found particularly in infants and hibernating animals. When stimulated by norepinephrine, brown fat cells rapidly metabolize fat and glucose, a process that generates a significant amount of heat. This mechanism is crucial for maintaining body temperature in cold environments, especially in newborns who have a high surface area-to-volume ratio and cannot shiver effectively.
Unattempted
Non-shivering thermogenesis is the body‘s mechanism for producing heat without muscle contractions. This process is primarily mediated by the hormone norepinephrine, which is released from the sympathetic nervous system. Norepinephrine acts on brown adipose tissue (brown fat), a specialized type of fat found particularly in infants and hibernating animals. When stimulated by norepinephrine, brown fat cells rapidly metabolize fat and glucose, a process that generates a significant amount of heat. This mechanism is crucial for maintaining body temperature in cold environments, especially in newborns who have a high surface area-to-volume ratio and cannot shiver effectively.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatial pathway is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
Post ganglionic fibers are longer in
Correct
The sympathetic nervous system is characterized by a “fight or flight” response, which requires a widespread, body-wide reaction. To achieve this, the preganglionic fibers are short and terminate in ganglia close to the spinal cord. From these ganglia, the postganglionic fibers are long and extend to their numerous target organs throughout the body.
In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” functions, which are more localized. It has long preganglionic fibers that travel close to or within the target organ before synapsing with very short postganglionic fibers.
Incorrect
The sympathetic nervous system is characterized by a “fight or flight” response, which requires a widespread, body-wide reaction. To achieve this, the preganglionic fibers are short and terminate in ganglia close to the spinal cord. From these ganglia, the postganglionic fibers are long and extend to their numerous target organs throughout the body.
In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” functions, which are more localized. It has long preganglionic fibers that travel close to or within the target organ before synapsing with very short postganglionic fibers.
Unattempted
The sympathetic nervous system is characterized by a “fight or flight” response, which requires a widespread, body-wide reaction. To achieve this, the preganglionic fibers are short and terminate in ganglia close to the spinal cord. From these ganglia, the postganglionic fibers are long and extend to their numerous target organs throughout the body.
In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” functions, which are more localized. It has long preganglionic fibers that travel close to or within the target organ before synapsing with very short postganglionic fibers.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
Given below are two statements
Statement I: Many endogenous body activities have rhythmic fluctuations that are approximately 24 h in length; that is, they are circadian. This rhythm is controlled by suprachiasmatic nucleus
Statement II: Diurnal variation of ACTH depends on suprachiasmatic nucleus
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Statement I
This statement accurately defines and describes the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).Circadian Rhythm: A circadian rhythm is a biological process that oscillates with an approximately 24-hour cycle. Many bodily functions, such as the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature, and hormone secretion, follow this rhythm.
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN): The SCN, located in the hypothalamus, acts as the body‘s master biological clock. It receives direct light signals from the retina and synchronizes the body‘s internal rhythms with the external day-night cycle. It‘s often referred to as the “pacemaker” of circadian rhythms. Statement II
This statement correctly links the SCN to the diurnal (daily) variation of ACTH.ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone): ACTH is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. Its release is stimulated by the hypothalamus, specifically by the hormone CRH.
Diurnal Rhythm: ACTH secretion follows a distinct circadian rhythm. Its levels are typically at their highest in the early morning (around 8 a.m.) to help the body wake up and cope with the day‘s stressors, and they are at their lowest in the late evening and throughout the night.
SCN‘s Role: The SCN controls the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn regulates the secretion of ACTH. Therefore, the SCN is the ultimate controller of the diurnal fluctuation in ACTH levels.
Incorrect
Statement I
This statement accurately defines and describes the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).Circadian Rhythm: A circadian rhythm is a biological process that oscillates with an approximately 24-hour cycle. Many bodily functions, such as the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature, and hormone secretion, follow this rhythm.
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN): The SCN, located in the hypothalamus, acts as the body‘s master biological clock. It receives direct light signals from the retina and synchronizes the body‘s internal rhythms with the external day-night cycle. It‘s often referred to as the “pacemaker” of circadian rhythms. Statement II
This statement correctly links the SCN to the diurnal (daily) variation of ACTH.ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone): ACTH is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. Its release is stimulated by the hypothalamus, specifically by the hormone CRH.
Diurnal Rhythm: ACTH secretion follows a distinct circadian rhythm. Its levels are typically at their highest in the early morning (around 8 a.m.) to help the body wake up and cope with the day‘s stressors, and they are at their lowest in the late evening and throughout the night.
SCN‘s Role: The SCN controls the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn regulates the secretion of ACTH. Therefore, the SCN is the ultimate controller of the diurnal fluctuation in ACTH levels.
Unattempted
Statement I
This statement accurately defines and describes the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).Circadian Rhythm: A circadian rhythm is a biological process that oscillates with an approximately 24-hour cycle. Many bodily functions, such as the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature, and hormone secretion, follow this rhythm.
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN): The SCN, located in the hypothalamus, acts as the body‘s master biological clock. It receives direct light signals from the retina and synchronizes the body‘s internal rhythms with the external day-night cycle. It‘s often referred to as the “pacemaker” of circadian rhythms. Statement II
This statement correctly links the SCN to the diurnal (daily) variation of ACTH.ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone): ACTH is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. Its release is stimulated by the hypothalamus, specifically by the hormone CRH.
Diurnal Rhythm: ACTH secretion follows a distinct circadian rhythm. Its levels are typically at their highest in the early morning (around 8 a.m.) to help the body wake up and cope with the day‘s stressors, and they are at their lowest in the late evening and throughout the night.
SCN‘s Role: The SCN controls the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn regulates the secretion of ACTH. Therefore, the SCN is the ultimate controller of the diurnal fluctuation in ACTH levels.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):True about experimental sham rage
is Occurs in decorticate animals
Reason (R): Ablation of hypothalamus eliminates sham rage.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
Best prognosis in nerve injury
Correct
Neuropraxia: This is the mildest form of nerve injury. There is a temporary blockage of nerve conduction, but the axon and its surrounding connective tissue are completely intact. Recovery is typically complete and rapid once the compression or stretch is relieved, usually within a few weeks to months. This type has the best prognosis.
Axonotmesis: This is a more severe injury where the axon and its myelin sheath are damaged, but the surrounding connective tissue layers (endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium) remain intact. The nerve‘s internal “scaffolding” is preserved, which allows the regenerating axon to grow back to its target. Recovery is possible but takes much longer (months to years), as the axon must regenerate, typically at a rate of 1-2 mm per day. The prognosis is good, but not as good as neuropraxia.
Neurotmesis: This is the most severe type of nerve injury, involving the complete disruption of the entire nerve, including the axon and all its surrounding connective tissue layers. Without the guidance of the connective tissue, the regenerating axon cannot find its way to its target. The prognosis is very poor, and surgical intervention is almost always required, with recovery often being incomplete.
Incorrect
Neuropraxia: This is the mildest form of nerve injury. There is a temporary blockage of nerve conduction, but the axon and its surrounding connective tissue are completely intact. Recovery is typically complete and rapid once the compression or stretch is relieved, usually within a few weeks to months. This type has the best prognosis.
Axonotmesis: This is a more severe injury where the axon and its myelin sheath are damaged, but the surrounding connective tissue layers (endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium) remain intact. The nerve‘s internal “scaffolding” is preserved, which allows the regenerating axon to grow back to its target. Recovery is possible but takes much longer (months to years), as the axon must regenerate, typically at a rate of 1-2 mm per day. The prognosis is good, but not as good as neuropraxia.
Neurotmesis: This is the most severe type of nerve injury, involving the complete disruption of the entire nerve, including the axon and all its surrounding connective tissue layers. Without the guidance of the connective tissue, the regenerating axon cannot find its way to its target. The prognosis is very poor, and surgical intervention is almost always required, with recovery often being incomplete.
Unattempted
Neuropraxia: This is the mildest form of nerve injury. There is a temporary blockage of nerve conduction, but the axon and its surrounding connective tissue are completely intact. Recovery is typically complete and rapid once the compression or stretch is relieved, usually within a few weeks to months. This type has the best prognosis.
Axonotmesis: This is a more severe injury where the axon and its myelin sheath are damaged, but the surrounding connective tissue layers (endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium) remain intact. The nerve‘s internal “scaffolding” is preserved, which allows the regenerating axon to grow back to its target. Recovery is possible but takes much longer (months to years), as the axon must regenerate, typically at a rate of 1-2 mm per day. The prognosis is good, but not as good as neuropraxia.
Neurotmesis: This is the most severe type of nerve injury, involving the complete disruption of the entire nerve, including the axon and all its surrounding connective tissue layers. Without the guidance of the connective tissue, the regenerating axon cannot find its way to its target. The prognosis is very poor, and surgical intervention is almost always required, with recovery often being incomplete.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
Bruxism occurs in which phase of sleep?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
The processing of short-term memory to long-term memory is done in:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
Bitter taste is mediated by action of:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
During the dark phase of visual cycle, which form of vitamin A combines with opsin to make Rhodopsin:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
Which type of papillae is located in the folds along the lateral surfaces of the tongue?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the cerebral cortex?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
Neurophysiological defects present in right lobe involvement all, except:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted


