Physiology 3
Physiology 3
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Net filtration pressure is
Correct
The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) in the glomeruli is the total pressure that drives fluid out of the blood and into Bowman‘s capsule. It is calculated by taking into account the forces that promote filtration and the forces that oppose it.
The formula is:
NFP=(Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure)−(Bowman’s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure+Glomerular Oncotic Pressure)Using typical values:
Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (P
GC) ≈ 60 mmHg (promotes filtration)
Bowman‘s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure (P
BS ) ≈ 18 mmHg (opposes filtration)
Glomerular Oncotic Pressure (Ï€
GC) ≈ 32 mmHg (opposes filtration)NFP=60 mmHg−(18 mmHg+32 mmHg)=60−50=10 mmHg
Incorrect
The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) in the glomeruli is the total pressure that drives fluid out of the blood and into Bowman‘s capsule. It is calculated by taking into account the forces that promote filtration and the forces that oppose it.
The formula is:
NFP=(Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure)−(Bowman’s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure+Glomerular Oncotic Pressure)Using typical values:
Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (P
GC) ≈ 60 mmHg (promotes filtration)
Bowman‘s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure (P
BS ) ≈ 18 mmHg (opposes filtration)
Glomerular Oncotic Pressure (Ï€
GC) ≈ 32 mmHg (opposes filtration)NFP=60 mmHg−(18 mmHg+32 mmHg)=60−50=10 mmHg
Unattempted
The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) in the glomeruli is the total pressure that drives fluid out of the blood and into Bowman‘s capsule. It is calculated by taking into account the forces that promote filtration and the forces that oppose it.
The formula is:
NFP=(Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure)−(Bowman’s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure+Glomerular Oncotic Pressure)Using typical values:
Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (P
GC) ≈ 60 mmHg (promotes filtration)
Bowman‘s Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure (P
BS ) ≈ 18 mmHg (opposes filtration)
Glomerular Oncotic Pressure (Ï€
GC) ≈ 32 mmHg (opposes filtration)NFP=60 mmHg−(18 mmHg+32 mmHg)=60−50=10 mmHg
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
Relaxation of mesangial cells of kidney is brought about by:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
GFR increases if::
A.Efferent arteriole constricts
B.Efferent arteriole dilates
C.Afferent arteriole constricts
D.Afferent arteriole dilatesCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
All of the following structures lie in the renal medulla, except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
Which of the following statements are true?
Correct
Based on the provided options, the correct statement is that if a substance‘s clearance is greater than the GFR, tubular secretion must be present.The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) measures how much fluid is filtered from the blood.
If a substance is simply filtered and not reabsorbed or secreted, its clearance will equal the GFR.
If a substance is reabsorbed back into the blood from the tubules, its clearance will be less than the GFR.
Therefore, if the clearance value is higher than the GFR, it means the kidneys are not just filtering the substance but are also actively moving it from the blood into the tubules. This additional removal process is called tubular secretion, and it makes the total clearance of the substance higher than the rate at which it was filtered.
Incorrect
Based on the provided options, the correct statement is that if a substance‘s clearance is greater than the GFR, tubular secretion must be present.The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) measures how much fluid is filtered from the blood.
If a substance is simply filtered and not reabsorbed or secreted, its clearance will equal the GFR.
If a substance is reabsorbed back into the blood from the tubules, its clearance will be less than the GFR.
Therefore, if the clearance value is higher than the GFR, it means the kidneys are not just filtering the substance but are also actively moving it from the blood into the tubules. This additional removal process is called tubular secretion, and it makes the total clearance of the substance higher than the rate at which it was filtered.
Unattempted
Based on the provided options, the correct statement is that if a substance‘s clearance is greater than the GFR, tubular secretion must be present.The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) measures how much fluid is filtered from the blood.
If a substance is simply filtered and not reabsorbed or secreted, its clearance will equal the GFR.
If a substance is reabsorbed back into the blood from the tubules, its clearance will be less than the GFR.
Therefore, if the clearance value is higher than the GFR, it means the kidneys are not just filtering the substance but are also actively moving it from the blood into the tubules. This additional removal process is called tubular secretion, and it makes the total clearance of the substance higher than the rate at which it was filtered.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
In humans, effective renal blood flow is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
Active reabsorption of amino acids exclusively seen in:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
The minimum urine osmolality that can be produced by human kidney
Correct
The human kidney‘s ability to excrete very dilute urine is a crucial mechanism for maintaining fluid balance, especially when there‘s an excess of water in the body. The minimum urine osmolality that can be produced is approximately 100 mOsm/L. This is achieved by the countercurrent multiplier system and the action of the collecting duct in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which makes the collecting duct impermeable to water. This allows for the excretion of excess water without losing a significant amount of solute.
Incorrect
The human kidney‘s ability to excrete very dilute urine is a crucial mechanism for maintaining fluid balance, especially when there‘s an excess of water in the body. The minimum urine osmolality that can be produced is approximately 100 mOsm/L. This is achieved by the countercurrent multiplier system and the action of the collecting duct in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which makes the collecting duct impermeable to water. This allows for the excretion of excess water without losing a significant amount of solute.
Unattempted
The human kidney‘s ability to excrete very dilute urine is a crucial mechanism for maintaining fluid balance, especially when there‘s an excess of water in the body. The minimum urine osmolality that can be produced is approximately 100 mOsm/L. This is achieved by the countercurrent multiplier system and the action of the collecting duct in the absence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which makes the collecting duct impermeable to water. This allows for the excretion of excess water without losing a significant amount of solute.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
Urine concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by –
Correct
The kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine is its mechanism for conserving water when the body is dehydrated or has a low blood volume.
ECF (Extracellular Fluid) volume contraction occurs when the body loses water and electrolytes, leading to a decrease in blood volume and pressure. This triggers the release of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland. ADH increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine back into the blood. This results in the excretion of a smaller volume of highly concentrated urine, thus increasing the kidney‘s concentrating ability. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Increase in RBF (Renal Blood Flow): An increase in blood flow to the kidneys tends to decrease the medullary hyperosmolarity and reduces the time for reabsorption, which would decrease the kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine.c) Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity: The high concentration of solutes in the renal medulla is the driving force for water reabsorption from the collecting ducts. A reduction in this hyperosmolarity would make it harder for the kidneys to reabsorb water, thereby decreasing their concentrating ability.
d) Increase in GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate): An increase in GFR means more fluid is being filtered, which can overwhelm the reabsorptive capacity of the tubules and lead to a higher volume of urine, thereby decreasing the concentrating ability.
Incorrect
The kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine is its mechanism for conserving water when the body is dehydrated or has a low blood volume.
ECF (Extracellular Fluid) volume contraction occurs when the body loses water and electrolytes, leading to a decrease in blood volume and pressure. This triggers the release of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland. ADH increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine back into the blood. This results in the excretion of a smaller volume of highly concentrated urine, thus increasing the kidney‘s concentrating ability. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Increase in RBF (Renal Blood Flow): An increase in blood flow to the kidneys tends to decrease the medullary hyperosmolarity and reduces the time for reabsorption, which would decrease the kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine.c) Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity: The high concentration of solutes in the renal medulla is the driving force for water reabsorption from the collecting ducts. A reduction in this hyperosmolarity would make it harder for the kidneys to reabsorb water, thereby decreasing their concentrating ability.
d) Increase in GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate): An increase in GFR means more fluid is being filtered, which can overwhelm the reabsorptive capacity of the tubules and lead to a higher volume of urine, thereby decreasing the concentrating ability.
Unattempted
The kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine is its mechanism for conserving water when the body is dehydrated or has a low blood volume.
ECF (Extracellular Fluid) volume contraction occurs when the body loses water and electrolytes, leading to a decrease in blood volume and pressure. This triggers the release of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland. ADH increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine back into the blood. This results in the excretion of a smaller volume of highly concentrated urine, thus increasing the kidney‘s concentrating ability. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Increase in RBF (Renal Blood Flow): An increase in blood flow to the kidneys tends to decrease the medullary hyperosmolarity and reduces the time for reabsorption, which would decrease the kidney‘s ability to concentrate urine.c) Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity: The high concentration of solutes in the renal medulla is the driving force for water reabsorption from the collecting ducts. A reduction in this hyperosmolarity would make it harder for the kidneys to reabsorb water, thereby decreasing their concentrating ability.
d) Increase in GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate): An increase in GFR means more fluid is being filtered, which can overwhelm the reabsorptive capacity of the tubules and lead to a higher volume of urine, thereby decreasing the concentrating ability.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Which of the following statement is true?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
All of these are correct of renal physiology except:
A.Most Sodium absorption occurs in DCT
B.Amino acids are reabsorbed in CD
C.Glucose is reabsorbed in DCT
D.Hb is not excreted as it is a large molecule
E.Potassium is both secreted and absorbed
in tubulesCorrect
A. Most Sodium absorption occurs in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. most sodium is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) .
B. Amino acids are reabsorbed in CD: This is an incorrect statement. Amino acids are almost entirely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), not the collecting duct (CD). The CD‘s main role is to regulate water and electrolyte balance.C. Glucose is reabsorbed in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. Like amino acids, glucose is almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
D. Hb is not excreted as it is a large molecule: This is a correct statement. Hemoglobin (Hb) is a very large protein. The glomerular filtration barrier is designed to prevent the filtration of large molecules like proteins, so Hb remains in the bloodstream and is not normally excreted in the urine. E. Potassium is both secreted and absorbed in tubules: This is a correct statement. Potassium is freely filtered at the glomerulus, reabsorbed in the PCT and Loop of Henle, and then both reabsorbed and secreted in the DCT and collecting duct. The body‘s potassium balance is primarily regulated by the secretion of potassium in the collecting duct, which is controlled by aldosterone.
Therefore, only statements D, and E are correct.
Incorrect
A. Most Sodium absorption occurs in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. most sodium is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) .
B. Amino acids are reabsorbed in CD: This is an incorrect statement. Amino acids are almost entirely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), not the collecting duct (CD). The CD‘s main role is to regulate water and electrolyte balance.C. Glucose is reabsorbed in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. Like amino acids, glucose is almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
D. Hb is not excreted as it is a large molecule: This is a correct statement. Hemoglobin (Hb) is a very large protein. The glomerular filtration barrier is designed to prevent the filtration of large molecules like proteins, so Hb remains in the bloodstream and is not normally excreted in the urine. E. Potassium is both secreted and absorbed in tubules: This is a correct statement. Potassium is freely filtered at the glomerulus, reabsorbed in the PCT and Loop of Henle, and then both reabsorbed and secreted in the DCT and collecting duct. The body‘s potassium balance is primarily regulated by the secretion of potassium in the collecting duct, which is controlled by aldosterone.
Therefore, only statements D, and E are correct.
Unattempted
A. Most Sodium absorption occurs in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. most sodium is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) .
B. Amino acids are reabsorbed in CD: This is an incorrect statement. Amino acids are almost entirely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), not the collecting duct (CD). The CD‘s main role is to regulate water and electrolyte balance.C. Glucose is reabsorbed in DCT: This is an incorrect statement. Like amino acids, glucose is almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
D. Hb is not excreted as it is a large molecule: This is a correct statement. Hemoglobin (Hb) is a very large protein. The glomerular filtration barrier is designed to prevent the filtration of large molecules like proteins, so Hb remains in the bloodstream and is not normally excreted in the urine. E. Potassium is both secreted and absorbed in tubules: This is a correct statement. Potassium is freely filtered at the glomerulus, reabsorbed in the PCT and Loop of Henle, and then both reabsorbed and secreted in the DCT and collecting duct. The body‘s potassium balance is primarily regulated by the secretion of potassium in the collecting duct, which is controlled by aldosterone.
Therefore, only statements D, and E are correct.
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
The intravesical pressure rises abruptly when the bladder volume is about
Correct
The intravesical pressure of the bladder is very low and stable during the initial filling phase due to the high compliance of the bladder wall. This allows the bladder to hold a significant amount of urine without a large increase in pressure. However, when the bladder volume reaches its capacity, typically around 400ml, the pressure begins to rise sharply. This is the point where the sensation to void becomes strong and difficult to suppress, triggering the micturition reflex.
Incorrect
The intravesical pressure of the bladder is very low and stable during the initial filling phase due to the high compliance of the bladder wall. This allows the bladder to hold a significant amount of urine without a large increase in pressure. However, when the bladder volume reaches its capacity, typically around 400ml, the pressure begins to rise sharply. This is the point where the sensation to void becomes strong and difficult to suppress, triggering the micturition reflex.
Unattempted
The intravesical pressure of the bladder is very low and stable during the initial filling phase due to the high compliance of the bladder wall. This allows the bladder to hold a significant amount of urine without a large increase in pressure. However, when the bladder volume reaches its capacity, typically around 400ml, the pressure begins to rise sharply. This is the point where the sensation to void becomes strong and difficult to suppress, triggering the micturition reflex.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to
Correct
The macula densa is a specialized group of cells located in the wall of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), right where it makes contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron. This entire structure is called the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). The macula densa cells act as chemoreceptors that monitor the sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration and flow rate of the tubular fluid. This information is crucial for the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, which allows the kidney to regulate its own blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR). When the macula densa senses a drop in salt concentration, it signals the adjacent juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent arteriole to release renin, which initiates a cascade that ultimately raises blood pressure and GFR.
Incorrect
The macula densa is a specialized group of cells located in the wall of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), right where it makes contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron. This entire structure is called the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). The macula densa cells act as chemoreceptors that monitor the sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration and flow rate of the tubular fluid. This information is crucial for the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, which allows the kidney to regulate its own blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR). When the macula densa senses a drop in salt concentration, it signals the adjacent juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent arteriole to release renin, which initiates a cascade that ultimately raises blood pressure and GFR.
Unattempted
The macula densa is a specialized group of cells located in the wall of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), right where it makes contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron. This entire structure is called the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). The macula densa cells act as chemoreceptors that monitor the sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration and flow rate of the tubular fluid. This information is crucial for the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, which allows the kidney to regulate its own blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR). When the macula densa senses a drop in salt concentration, it signals the adjacent juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent arteriole to release renin, which initiates a cascade that ultimately raises blood pressure and GFR.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
In metabolic acidosis, true about urinary change is
Correct
In metabolic acidosis, the body attempts to compensate by increasing the excretion of acid in the urine. One of the primary mechanisms for this is the production and excretion of ammonia (NH3) and ammonium ions (NH4+). The kidney increases the metabolism of the amino acid glutamine, which produces ammonia. This ammonia diffuses into the renal tubules and combines with excess hydrogen ions (H+) to form ammonium ions, which are then excreted in the urine. This process is crucial because it allows the body to excrete a large amount of acid without significantly lowering the pH of the urine, and it also saves valuable bicarbonate (HCO3−) which is needed to buffer the blood. Therefore, an increase in urinary ammonia is a key renal response to metabolic acidosis.
Incorrect
In metabolic acidosis, the body attempts to compensate by increasing the excretion of acid in the urine. One of the primary mechanisms for this is the production and excretion of ammonia (NH3) and ammonium ions (NH4+). The kidney increases the metabolism of the amino acid glutamine, which produces ammonia. This ammonia diffuses into the renal tubules and combines with excess hydrogen ions (H+) to form ammonium ions, which are then excreted in the urine. This process is crucial because it allows the body to excrete a large amount of acid without significantly lowering the pH of the urine, and it also saves valuable bicarbonate (HCO3−) which is needed to buffer the blood. Therefore, an increase in urinary ammonia is a key renal response to metabolic acidosis.
Unattempted
In metabolic acidosis, the body attempts to compensate by increasing the excretion of acid in the urine. One of the primary mechanisms for this is the production and excretion of ammonia (NH3) and ammonium ions (NH4+). The kidney increases the metabolism of the amino acid glutamine, which produces ammonia. This ammonia diffuses into the renal tubules and combines with excess hydrogen ions (H+) to form ammonium ions, which are then excreted in the urine. This process is crucial because it allows the body to excrete a large amount of acid without significantly lowering the pH of the urine, and it also saves valuable bicarbonate (HCO3−) which is needed to buffer the blood. Therefore, an increase in urinary ammonia is a key renal response to metabolic acidosis.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
High threshold substance is
Correct
A high threshold substance is a substance that is almost completely reabsorbed from the renal tubules back into the blood, and thus has a very low concentration in the urine under normal conditions. The body‘s threshold for this substance is high, meaning it will be reabsorbed up to a certain high plasma concentration before any of it appears in the urine. Glucose is the classic example; in a healthy individual, 100% of the filtered glucose is reabsorbed, and none is excreted in the urine.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Uric acid: Uric acid is partially reabsorbed and partially secreted, so it is not a high-threshold substance.b) Urea: Urea is a waste product that is partially reabsorbed but a significant portion is excreted, making it a low-threshold substance.
d) Creatinine: Creatinine is almost entirely filtered at the glomerulus and is not significantly reabsorbed. It is also slightly secreted by the tubules, making it a key substance used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It is a good example of a no-threshold substance or a low-threshold substance.
Incorrect
A high threshold substance is a substance that is almost completely reabsorbed from the renal tubules back into the blood, and thus has a very low concentration in the urine under normal conditions. The body‘s threshold for this substance is high, meaning it will be reabsorbed up to a certain high plasma concentration before any of it appears in the urine. Glucose is the classic example; in a healthy individual, 100% of the filtered glucose is reabsorbed, and none is excreted in the urine.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Uric acid: Uric acid is partially reabsorbed and partially secreted, so it is not a high-threshold substance.b) Urea: Urea is a waste product that is partially reabsorbed but a significant portion is excreted, making it a low-threshold substance.
d) Creatinine: Creatinine is almost entirely filtered at the glomerulus and is not significantly reabsorbed. It is also slightly secreted by the tubules, making it a key substance used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It is a good example of a no-threshold substance or a low-threshold substance.
Unattempted
A high threshold substance is a substance that is almost completely reabsorbed from the renal tubules back into the blood, and thus has a very low concentration in the urine under normal conditions. The body‘s threshold for this substance is high, meaning it will be reabsorbed up to a certain high plasma concentration before any of it appears in the urine. Glucose is the classic example; in a healthy individual, 100% of the filtered glucose is reabsorbed, and none is excreted in the urine.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Uric acid: Uric acid is partially reabsorbed and partially secreted, so it is not a high-threshold substance.b) Urea: Urea is a waste product that is partially reabsorbed but a significant portion is excreted, making it a low-threshold substance.
d) Creatinine: Creatinine is almost entirely filtered at the glomerulus and is not significantly reabsorbed. It is also slightly secreted by the tubules, making it a key substance used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It is a good example of a no-threshold substance or a low-threshold substance.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
Kidney produces:
A. Vasopressin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Renin
D. Angiotensinogen
E. 25 hydroxy vit DCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
The most sensitive index for renal tubular function is:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
One of the following does not form filtration barrier in nephrons –
Correct
The glomerular filtration barrier is made up of three distinct layers that blood must pass through to become filtrate. They are:
Fenestrated Endothelial Cells: The innermost layer, with large pores that allow plasma and small solutes to pass through, but restrict blood cells.
Glomerular Basement Membrane (GBM): A dense, negatively charged layer that serves as a primary barrier to large proteins.
Podocytes: Specialized epithelial cells that have foot processes (pedicels) that wrap around the glomerular capillaries. The spaces between these foot processes, called filtration slits, are bridged by a thin slit diaphragm, which acts as the final size and charge-selective filter.
The mesangium is a collection of cells (mesangial cells) and extracellular matrix located within the glomerulus, between the capillary loops. Their primary functions are to provide structural support, clear trapped debris, and regulate blood flow by their contractile properties. While they are crucial for maintaining the overall health and function of the glomerulus, they are not considered a direct part of the filtration barrier itself.
Incorrect
The glomerular filtration barrier is made up of three distinct layers that blood must pass through to become filtrate. They are:
Fenestrated Endothelial Cells: The innermost layer, with large pores that allow plasma and small solutes to pass through, but restrict blood cells.
Glomerular Basement Membrane (GBM): A dense, negatively charged layer that serves as a primary barrier to large proteins.
Podocytes: Specialized epithelial cells that have foot processes (pedicels) that wrap around the glomerular capillaries. The spaces between these foot processes, called filtration slits, are bridged by a thin slit diaphragm, which acts as the final size and charge-selective filter.
The mesangium is a collection of cells (mesangial cells) and extracellular matrix located within the glomerulus, between the capillary loops. Their primary functions are to provide structural support, clear trapped debris, and regulate blood flow by their contractile properties. While they are crucial for maintaining the overall health and function of the glomerulus, they are not considered a direct part of the filtration barrier itself.
Unattempted
The glomerular filtration barrier is made up of three distinct layers that blood must pass through to become filtrate. They are:
Fenestrated Endothelial Cells: The innermost layer, with large pores that allow plasma and small solutes to pass through, but restrict blood cells.
Glomerular Basement Membrane (GBM): A dense, negatively charged layer that serves as a primary barrier to large proteins.
Podocytes: Specialized epithelial cells that have foot processes (pedicels) that wrap around the glomerular capillaries. The spaces between these foot processes, called filtration slits, are bridged by a thin slit diaphragm, which acts as the final size and charge-selective filter.
The mesangium is a collection of cells (mesangial cells) and extracellular matrix located within the glomerulus, between the capillary loops. Their primary functions are to provide structural support, clear trapped debris, and regulate blood flow by their contractile properties. While they are crucial for maintaining the overall health and function of the glomerulus, they are not considered a direct part of the filtration barrier itself.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillaries?
A.Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)
B. Globulin
C. Creatinine
D. HCO3–
E. GlucoseCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
Not absorbed from the PCT:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption is:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules is true?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
Transport maximum (Tm) means –
Correct
Transport maximum (Tm) is the maximum rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed from the renal tubules or secreted into them. This limit is set by the number of available transport proteins in the tubule cells. Once all the transport proteins are saturated, any excess of the substance will not be reabsorbed or secreted and will be excreted in the urine.
For example, in the case of glucose, the Tm is around 375 mg/min. If the glucose load in the filtrate exceeds this rate (as in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus), glucose will begin to appear in the urine (glycosuria).
Incorrect
Transport maximum (Tm) is the maximum rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed from the renal tubules or secreted into them. This limit is set by the number of available transport proteins in the tubule cells. Once all the transport proteins are saturated, any excess of the substance will not be reabsorbed or secreted and will be excreted in the urine.
For example, in the case of glucose, the Tm is around 375 mg/min. If the glucose load in the filtrate exceeds this rate (as in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus), glucose will begin to appear in the urine (glycosuria).
Unattempted
Transport maximum (Tm) is the maximum rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed from the renal tubules or secreted into them. This limit is set by the number of available transport proteins in the tubule cells. Once all the transport proteins are saturated, any excess of the substance will not be reabsorbed or secreted and will be excreted in the urine.
For example, in the case of glucose, the Tm is around 375 mg/min. If the glucose load in the filtrate exceeds this rate (as in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus), glucose will begin to appear in the urine (glycosuria).
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control secretion of which of the
following hormones –Correct
The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is a key neurosecretory center that produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. ADH is then transported down the axons of the neurons to the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and later released into the bloodstream. Its primary function is to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Oxytocin: While oxytocin is also produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, it is primarily synthesized in the paraventricular nucleus, not the supraoptic nucleus.c) Growth hormone: Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is controlled by Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) and Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH) from the hypothalamus.
d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH): ACTH is also secreted by the anterior pituitary. Its release is stimulated by Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.
Incorrect
The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is a key neurosecretory center that produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. ADH is then transported down the axons of the neurons to the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and later released into the bloodstream. Its primary function is to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Oxytocin: While oxytocin is also produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, it is primarily synthesized in the paraventricular nucleus, not the supraoptic nucleus.c) Growth hormone: Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is controlled by Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) and Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH) from the hypothalamus.
d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH): ACTH is also secreted by the anterior pituitary. Its release is stimulated by Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.
Unattempted
The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is a key neurosecretory center that produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. ADH is then transported down the axons of the neurons to the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and later released into the bloodstream. Its primary function is to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) Oxytocin: While oxytocin is also produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, it is primarily synthesized in the paraventricular nucleus, not the supraoptic nucleus.c) Growth hormone: Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is controlled by Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) and Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH) from the hypothalamus.
d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH): ACTH is also secreted by the anterior pituitary. Its release is stimulated by Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
Which is not synthesised by vascular epithelium?
Correct
The vascular endothelium, the inner lining of blood vessels, produces a variety of substances that regulate blood vessel function and blood clotting. However, Angiotensin II is not one of them.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor produced in the blood from its precursor, Angiotensin I, by the action of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE), which is found on the surface of endothelial cells, but the Angiotensin II molecule itself is not synthesized by them.
Prostacyclin (PGI
2
​
) is synthesized by endothelial cells. It is a powerful vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to prevent inappropriate blood clot formation.Endothelin is another potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium. It plays a key role in regulating blood vessel tone and blood pressure.
Heparin is a natural anticoagulant, and while it is produced by mast cells and basophils, the vascular endothelium also has heparin-like molecules on its surface that play a role in preventing blood clotting.
Incorrect
The vascular endothelium, the inner lining of blood vessels, produces a variety of substances that regulate blood vessel function and blood clotting. However, Angiotensin II is not one of them.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor produced in the blood from its precursor, Angiotensin I, by the action of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE), which is found on the surface of endothelial cells, but the Angiotensin II molecule itself is not synthesized by them.
Prostacyclin (PGI
2
​
) is synthesized by endothelial cells. It is a powerful vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to prevent inappropriate blood clot formation.Endothelin is another potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium. It plays a key role in regulating blood vessel tone and blood pressure.
Heparin is a natural anticoagulant, and while it is produced by mast cells and basophils, the vascular endothelium also has heparin-like molecules on its surface that play a role in preventing blood clotting.
Unattempted
The vascular endothelium, the inner lining of blood vessels, produces a variety of substances that regulate blood vessel function and blood clotting. However, Angiotensin II is not one of them.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor produced in the blood from its precursor, Angiotensin I, by the action of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE), which is found on the surface of endothelial cells, but the Angiotensin II molecule itself is not synthesized by them.
Prostacyclin (PGI
2
​
) is synthesized by endothelial cells. It is a powerful vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to prevent inappropriate blood clot formation.Endothelin is another potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium. It plays a key role in regulating blood vessel tone and blood pressure.
Heparin is a natural anticoagulant, and while it is produced by mast cells and basophils, the vascular endothelium also has heparin-like molecules on its surface that play a role in preventing blood clotting.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
Plateau phase of ventricular muscle is due to opening of:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
During diastole, the arterial pressure is maintained by-
Correct
During diastole, the heart is relaxing and no longer ejecting blood, so the pressure is maintained by the elastic recoil of the aorta and other large arteries. During systole (heart contraction), the aorta expands to accommodate the large volume of blood. This expansion stores potential energy. When the heart relaxes in diastole, the elastic walls of the aorta recoil, pushing the blood forward and ensuring a continuous flow and pressure throughout the circulatory system. This is known as the Windkessel effect.
Incorrect
During diastole, the heart is relaxing and no longer ejecting blood, so the pressure is maintained by the elastic recoil of the aorta and other large arteries. During systole (heart contraction), the aorta expands to accommodate the large volume of blood. This expansion stores potential energy. When the heart relaxes in diastole, the elastic walls of the aorta recoil, pushing the blood forward and ensuring a continuous flow and pressure throughout the circulatory system. This is known as the Windkessel effect.
Unattempted
During diastole, the heart is relaxing and no longer ejecting blood, so the pressure is maintained by the elastic recoil of the aorta and other large arteries. During systole (heart contraction), the aorta expands to accommodate the large volume of blood. This expansion stores potential energy. When the heart relaxes in diastole, the elastic walls of the aorta recoil, pushing the blood forward and ensuring a continuous flow and pressure throughout the circulatory system. This is known as the Windkessel effect.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
Which of the following is the order of activation after stimulation of Purkinje fibers is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
All are effects of sympathetic stimulation except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
Vagal stimulation of the heart causes:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
Prepotential SA node is due to all EXCEPT?
Correct
The “prepotential” or spontaneous depolarization of the SA node is a crucial part of the heart‘s pacemaker function. It is a slow, gradual increase in membrane potential that brings the cell to its threshold for firing an action potential. This process is driven by three main ionic currents:
c) K+ decay: As the membrane potential becomes more negative after an action potential, the voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels responsible for repolarization slowly close. This decreases the outward flow of positive charge, causing the membrane potential to gradually drift upward.
d) Transient Ca$^{2+}$ channels opening: The initial depolarization is also aided by the opening of transient or T-type calcium channels, which allow a small influx of Ca2+.”Funny” current (If): This is a specific type of sodium channel that opens when the membrane potential is negative, allowing a slow, inward flow of positive charge (Na+). This current is a key component of the prepotential.
a) Ca2+ spark: This is also a valid contributing factor. The influx of calcium ions through the channels can trigger the release of more calcium from intracellular stores, further contributing to the depolarization.
The key exception is the b) Fast sodium channels opening. The fast sodium channels are responsible for the rapid depolarization phase (Phase 0) of the action potential in ventricular and skeletal muscle cells, but they are not present in the SA node. The SA node‘s action potential is much slower and relies on calcium channels for its rapid depolarization phase.
Incorrect
The “prepotential” or spontaneous depolarization of the SA node is a crucial part of the heart‘s pacemaker function. It is a slow, gradual increase in membrane potential that brings the cell to its threshold for firing an action potential. This process is driven by three main ionic currents:
c) K+ decay: As the membrane potential becomes more negative after an action potential, the voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels responsible for repolarization slowly close. This decreases the outward flow of positive charge, causing the membrane potential to gradually drift upward.
d) Transient Ca$^{2+}$ channels opening: The initial depolarization is also aided by the opening of transient or T-type calcium channels, which allow a small influx of Ca2+.”Funny” current (If): This is a specific type of sodium channel that opens when the membrane potential is negative, allowing a slow, inward flow of positive charge (Na+). This current is a key component of the prepotential.
a) Ca2+ spark: This is also a valid contributing factor. The influx of calcium ions through the channels can trigger the release of more calcium from intracellular stores, further contributing to the depolarization.
The key exception is the b) Fast sodium channels opening. The fast sodium channels are responsible for the rapid depolarization phase (Phase 0) of the action potential in ventricular and skeletal muscle cells, but they are not present in the SA node. The SA node‘s action potential is much slower and relies on calcium channels for its rapid depolarization phase.
Unattempted
The “prepotential” or spontaneous depolarization of the SA node is a crucial part of the heart‘s pacemaker function. It is a slow, gradual increase in membrane potential that brings the cell to its threshold for firing an action potential. This process is driven by three main ionic currents:
c) K+ decay: As the membrane potential becomes more negative after an action potential, the voltage-gated potassium (K+) channels responsible for repolarization slowly close. This decreases the outward flow of positive charge, causing the membrane potential to gradually drift upward.
d) Transient Ca$^{2+}$ channels opening: The initial depolarization is also aided by the opening of transient or T-type calcium channels, which allow a small influx of Ca2+.”Funny” current (If): This is a specific type of sodium channel that opens when the membrane potential is negative, allowing a slow, inward flow of positive charge (Na+). This current is a key component of the prepotential.
a) Ca2+ spark: This is also a valid contributing factor. The influx of calcium ions through the channels can trigger the release of more calcium from intracellular stores, further contributing to the depolarization.
The key exception is the b) Fast sodium channels opening. The fast sodium channels are responsible for the rapid depolarization phase (Phase 0) of the action potential in ventricular and skeletal muscle cells, but they are not present in the SA node. The SA node‘s action potential is much slower and relies on calcium channels for its rapid depolarization phase.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is –
Correct
During exercise, the metabolic activity of skeletal muscles increases dramatically. This leads to the local production of metabolites such as lactic acid, adenosine, carbon dioxide, and potassium ions. These substances have a powerful vasodilatory effect on the arterioles supplying the active muscles. This local vasodilatation is the primary cause of the increased blood flow to the exercising muscles, ensuring they receive the necessary oxygen and nutrients to meet their high metabolic demands. This is an example of active hyperemia.
Incorrect
During exercise, the metabolic activity of skeletal muscles increases dramatically. This leads to the local production of metabolites such as lactic acid, adenosine, carbon dioxide, and potassium ions. These substances have a powerful vasodilatory effect on the arterioles supplying the active muscles. This local vasodilatation is the primary cause of the increased blood flow to the exercising muscles, ensuring they receive the necessary oxygen and nutrients to meet their high metabolic demands. This is an example of active hyperemia.
Unattempted
During exercise, the metabolic activity of skeletal muscles increases dramatically. This leads to the local production of metabolites such as lactic acid, adenosine, carbon dioxide, and potassium ions. These substances have a powerful vasodilatory effect on the arterioles supplying the active muscles. This local vasodilatation is the primary cause of the increased blood flow to the exercising muscles, ensuring they receive the necessary oxygen and nutrients to meet their high metabolic demands. This is an example of active hyperemia.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
Preload leads to:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of heart is –
Correct
During cardiac imaging, it is crucial to acquire images when the heart is as still as possible to avoid motion artifacts that can blur the image and obscure details. The period of least motion, or maximum cardiac stillness, occurs in late diastole. This is the point just before the atria contract and push blood into the ventricles. The entire heart is relaxed and relatively motionless, making it the ideal “sweet spot” for high-quality cardiac imaging, especially for techniques like MRI and CT scans.
Incorrect
During cardiac imaging, it is crucial to acquire images when the heart is as still as possible to avoid motion artifacts that can blur the image and obscure details. The period of least motion, or maximum cardiac stillness, occurs in late diastole. This is the point just before the atria contract and push blood into the ventricles. The entire heart is relaxed and relatively motionless, making it the ideal “sweet spot” for high-quality cardiac imaging, especially for techniques like MRI and CT scans.
Unattempted
During cardiac imaging, it is crucial to acquire images when the heart is as still as possible to avoid motion artifacts that can blur the image and obscure details. The period of least motion, or maximum cardiac stillness, occurs in late diastole. This is the point just before the atria contract and push blood into the ventricles. The entire heart is relaxed and relatively motionless, making it the ideal “sweet spot” for high-quality cardiac imaging, especially for techniques like MRI and CT scans.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
At the end of isometric relaxation phase:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
Venous return to heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except
Correct
The gravitational increase in arterial pressure is a factor that impedes, not facilitates, venous return. Gravity pulls blood downward, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and increasing the hydrostatic pressure in the veins and arteries of the lower body. This makes it more difficult for blood to return to the heart.
Incorrect
The gravitational increase in arterial pressure is a factor that impedes, not facilitates, venous return. Gravity pulls blood downward, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and increasing the hydrostatic pressure in the veins and arteries of the lower body. This makes it more difficult for blood to return to the heart.
Unattempted
The gravitational increase in arterial pressure is a factor that impedes, not facilitates, venous return. Gravity pulls blood downward, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and increasing the hydrostatic pressure in the veins and arteries of the lower body. This makes it more difficult for blood to return to the heart.
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
Starling‘s law implies:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
Normal AV delay of 0.1 seconds is due to
Correct
Fewer Gap Junctions: The cells of the AV node have a significantly lower number of gap junctions compared to the rest of the heart‘s conduction system. Gap junctions are a key component for rapid electrical signal transmission between cardiac cells. This relative scarcity of gap junctions slows the speed of impulse conduction, creating the essential delay.
Incorrect
Fewer Gap Junctions: The cells of the AV node have a significantly lower number of gap junctions compared to the rest of the heart‘s conduction system. Gap junctions are a key component for rapid electrical signal transmission between cardiac cells. This relative scarcity of gap junctions slows the speed of impulse conduction, creating the essential delay.
Unattempted
Fewer Gap Junctions: The cells of the AV node have a significantly lower number of gap junctions compared to the rest of the heart‘s conduction system. Gap junctions are a key component for rapid electrical signal transmission between cardiac cells. This relative scarcity of gap junctions slows the speed of impulse conduction, creating the essential delay.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
The basis of Korotkoff sound is related to:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
P wave is absent in –
Correct
The P wave on an ECG represents the electrical depolarization and subsequent contraction of the atria. In atrial fibrillation, the electrical activity of the atria is disorganized and chaotic, with multiple tiny re-entrant circuits instead of a single, coordinated impulse from the SA node. Because of this chaotic activity, there is no organized atrial depolarization, and as a result, a visible, coordinated P wave is absent. Instead, the ECG baseline often shows an irregularly irregular pattern of small, fibrillatory (f) waves. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) CCF (Congestive Heart Failure): Congestive heart failure is a clinical syndrome, not a specific arrhythmia. While a patient with CCF may develop arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, the condition itself does not cause the absence of a P wave. An ECG in a patient with CCF may show signs of an enlarged heart but will typically have a P wave.c) Atrial flutter: While atrial flutter is also an atrial arrhythmia, it is characterized by a single, rapid, and organized re-entrant circuit. This produces a characteristic “sawtooth” pattern on the ECG baseline, known as flutter (F) waves. These are distinct and regularly occurring, and although they are not P waves, they represent organized atrial activity, unlike the chaotic activity in atrial fibrillation.
d) PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia): In many types of PSVT, a P wave is present, but it may be hidden within the QRS complex or the T wave due to the very rapid heart rate. However, a PSVT rhythm can be regular and is not defined by the absence of a P wave.
Incorrect
The P wave on an ECG represents the electrical depolarization and subsequent contraction of the atria. In atrial fibrillation, the electrical activity of the atria is disorganized and chaotic, with multiple tiny re-entrant circuits instead of a single, coordinated impulse from the SA node. Because of this chaotic activity, there is no organized atrial depolarization, and as a result, a visible, coordinated P wave is absent. Instead, the ECG baseline often shows an irregularly irregular pattern of small, fibrillatory (f) waves. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) CCF (Congestive Heart Failure): Congestive heart failure is a clinical syndrome, not a specific arrhythmia. While a patient with CCF may develop arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, the condition itself does not cause the absence of a P wave. An ECG in a patient with CCF may show signs of an enlarged heart but will typically have a P wave.c) Atrial flutter: While atrial flutter is also an atrial arrhythmia, it is characterized by a single, rapid, and organized re-entrant circuit. This produces a characteristic “sawtooth” pattern on the ECG baseline, known as flutter (F) waves. These are distinct and regularly occurring, and although they are not P waves, they represent organized atrial activity, unlike the chaotic activity in atrial fibrillation.
d) PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia): In many types of PSVT, a P wave is present, but it may be hidden within the QRS complex or the T wave due to the very rapid heart rate. However, a PSVT rhythm can be regular and is not defined by the absence of a P wave.
Unattempted
The P wave on an ECG represents the electrical depolarization and subsequent contraction of the atria. In atrial fibrillation, the electrical activity of the atria is disorganized and chaotic, with multiple tiny re-entrant circuits instead of a single, coordinated impulse from the SA node. Because of this chaotic activity, there is no organized atrial depolarization, and as a result, a visible, coordinated P wave is absent. Instead, the ECG baseline often shows an irregularly irregular pattern of small, fibrillatory (f) waves. Why the other options are incorrect:
b) CCF (Congestive Heart Failure): Congestive heart failure is a clinical syndrome, not a specific arrhythmia. While a patient with CCF may develop arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, the condition itself does not cause the absence of a P wave. An ECG in a patient with CCF may show signs of an enlarged heart but will typically have a P wave.c) Atrial flutter: While atrial flutter is also an atrial arrhythmia, it is characterized by a single, rapid, and organized re-entrant circuit. This produces a characteristic “sawtooth” pattern on the ECG baseline, known as flutter (F) waves. These are distinct and regularly occurring, and although they are not P waves, they represent organized atrial activity, unlike the chaotic activity in atrial fibrillation.
d) PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia): In many types of PSVT, a P wave is present, but it may be hidden within the QRS complex or the T wave due to the very rapid heart rate. However, a PSVT rhythm can be regular and is not defined by the absence of a P wave.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
True about blood pressure measurement is all except:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
Baroreceptor reflex: true is:
Correct
The baroreceptor reflex is a crucial negative feedback loop that maintains blood pressure within a narrow, stable range. Its function is to counteract sudden changes in blood pressure.
Location: Baroreceptors are stretch receptors located in the walls of the major arteries, primarily the carotid sinus (at the bifurcation of the internal and external carotid arteries) and the aortic arch.
Mechanism: When blood pressure increases, the arterial walls stretch, and the baroreceptors fire more frequently. This sends signals to the brainstem. The brainstem then activates the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibits the sympathetic nervous system. This causes a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure back toward normal.
Conversely, when blood pressure decreases, the baroreceptors fire less frequently, leading to sympathetic activation and parasympathetic inhibition. This results in an increase in heart rate and vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure.
Incorrect
The baroreceptor reflex is a crucial negative feedback loop that maintains blood pressure within a narrow, stable range. Its function is to counteract sudden changes in blood pressure.
Location: Baroreceptors are stretch receptors located in the walls of the major arteries, primarily the carotid sinus (at the bifurcation of the internal and external carotid arteries) and the aortic arch.
Mechanism: When blood pressure increases, the arterial walls stretch, and the baroreceptors fire more frequently. This sends signals to the brainstem. The brainstem then activates the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibits the sympathetic nervous system. This causes a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure back toward normal.
Conversely, when blood pressure decreases, the baroreceptors fire less frequently, leading to sympathetic activation and parasympathetic inhibition. This results in an increase in heart rate and vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure.
Unattempted
The baroreceptor reflex is a crucial negative feedback loop that maintains blood pressure within a narrow, stable range. Its function is to counteract sudden changes in blood pressure.
Location: Baroreceptors are stretch receptors located in the walls of the major arteries, primarily the carotid sinus (at the bifurcation of the internal and external carotid arteries) and the aortic arch.
Mechanism: When blood pressure increases, the arterial walls stretch, and the baroreceptors fire more frequently. This sends signals to the brainstem. The brainstem then activates the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibits the sympathetic nervous system. This causes a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure back toward normal.
Conversely, when blood pressure decreases, the baroreceptors fire less frequently, leading to sympathetic activation and parasympathetic inhibition. This results in an increase in heart rate and vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
Occlusion of common carotid artery on both sides leads to:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
Fourth heart sound is caused by
Correct
The Fourth heart sound (S4), often called the “atrial gallop,” is an abnormal heart sound caused by the forceful contraction of the atria against a stiff or non-compliant ventricle. This contraction pushes blood into a ventricle that has reduced compliance (is less elastic). The sound is produced by the vibration of the ventricular walls as they are stretched by this extra volume of blood.
Why other options are incorrect:
a) Closure of AV valves: The closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (mitral and tricuspid) at the beginning of systole produces the first heart sound (S1).
b) Closure of semilunar valves: The closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the end of systole produces the second heart sound (S2).
c) Rapid ventricular filling: This is a factor in the third heart sound (S3), which is caused by the rapid inflow of blood into a dilated or volume-overloaded ventricle.Incorrect
The Fourth heart sound (S4), often called the “atrial gallop,” is an abnormal heart sound caused by the forceful contraction of the atria against a stiff or non-compliant ventricle. This contraction pushes blood into a ventricle that has reduced compliance (is less elastic). The sound is produced by the vibration of the ventricular walls as they are stretched by this extra volume of blood.
Why other options are incorrect:
a) Closure of AV valves: The closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (mitral and tricuspid) at the beginning of systole produces the first heart sound (S1).
b) Closure of semilunar valves: The closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the end of systole produces the second heart sound (S2).
c) Rapid ventricular filling: This is a factor in the third heart sound (S3), which is caused by the rapid inflow of blood into a dilated or volume-overloaded ventricle.Unattempted
The Fourth heart sound (S4), often called the “atrial gallop,” is an abnormal heart sound caused by the forceful contraction of the atria against a stiff or non-compliant ventricle. This contraction pushes blood into a ventricle that has reduced compliance (is less elastic). The sound is produced by the vibration of the ventricular walls as they are stretched by this extra volume of blood.
Why other options are incorrect:
a) Closure of AV valves: The closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (mitral and tricuspid) at the beginning of systole produces the first heart sound (S1).
b) Closure of semilunar valves: The closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the end of systole produces the second heart sound (S2).
c) Rapid ventricular filling: This is a factor in the third heart sound (S3), which is caused by the rapid inflow of blood into a dilated or volume-overloaded ventricle. -
Question 46 of 50
46. Question
Bernoulli‘s principle states:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
Amount of coronary flow per minute is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
For cerebral blood flow to be doubled, pCO2, should be:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
Arteriole isÂ
Correct
Arterioles are the smallest arteries, branching off from larger arteries and leading into the capillaries. They are known as resistance vessels because they have a muscular wall that can contract or relax to change their diameter. This ability to regulate their radius is the primary way the body controls both systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. By constricting, arterioles increase resistance and raise blood pressure; by dilating, they decrease resistance and lower blood pressure. Conducting vessels are the large elastic arteries, like the aorta, that transport blood away from the heart with minimal resistance.
Exchange vessels are the capillaries, where the primary function is the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the tissues.
Capacitance vessels are the veins and venules. They have thin, highly expandable walls that allow them to hold a large volume of blood (approximately 60-70% of total blood volume), acting as a blood reservoir.
Incorrect
Arterioles are the smallest arteries, branching off from larger arteries and leading into the capillaries. They are known as resistance vessels because they have a muscular wall that can contract or relax to change their diameter. This ability to regulate their radius is the primary way the body controls both systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. By constricting, arterioles increase resistance and raise blood pressure; by dilating, they decrease resistance and lower blood pressure. Conducting vessels are the large elastic arteries, like the aorta, that transport blood away from the heart with minimal resistance.
Exchange vessels are the capillaries, where the primary function is the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the tissues.
Capacitance vessels are the veins and venules. They have thin, highly expandable walls that allow them to hold a large volume of blood (approximately 60-70% of total blood volume), acting as a blood reservoir.
Unattempted
Arterioles are the smallest arteries, branching off from larger arteries and leading into the capillaries. They are known as resistance vessels because they have a muscular wall that can contract or relax to change their diameter. This ability to regulate their radius is the primary way the body controls both systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. By constricting, arterioles increase resistance and raise blood pressure; by dilating, they decrease resistance and lower blood pressure. Conducting vessels are the large elastic arteries, like the aorta, that transport blood away from the heart with minimal resistance.
Exchange vessels are the capillaries, where the primary function is the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the tissues.
Capacitance vessels are the veins and venules. They have thin, highly expandable walls that allow them to hold a large volume of blood (approximately 60-70% of total blood volume), acting as a blood reservoir.

