Physiology 4
Physiology 4
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Physiology & Biochemistry
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Daily pancreatic secretion
Correct
The pancreas secretes approximately 1.5 L of pancreatic juice per day. This fluid is a vital component of the digestive system, containing a mixture of enzymes to digest carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, as well as bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach. This volume can vary slightly depending on the individual and their diet, but 1.5 L is the widely accepted physiological average.
Incorrect
The pancreas secretes approximately 1.5 L of pancreatic juice per day. This fluid is a vital component of the digestive system, containing a mixture of enzymes to digest carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, as well as bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach. This volume can vary slightly depending on the individual and their diet, but 1.5 L is the widely accepted physiological average.
Unattempted
The pancreas secretes approximately 1.5 L of pancreatic juice per day. This fluid is a vital component of the digestive system, containing a mixture of enzymes to digest carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, as well as bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach. This volume can vary slightly depending on the individual and their diet, but 1.5 L is the widely accepted physiological average.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
Ptyalin is secreted by
Correct
Ptyalin, which is another name for salivary amylase, is an enzyme that begins the digestion of carbohydrates. It is secreted by the salivary glands in the mouth. When food is chewed, ptyalin mixes with it and starts breaking down complex carbohydrates like starches into simpler sugars.
Incorrect
Ptyalin, which is another name for salivary amylase, is an enzyme that begins the digestion of carbohydrates. It is secreted by the salivary glands in the mouth. When food is chewed, ptyalin mixes with it and starts breaking down complex carbohydrates like starches into simpler sugars.
Unattempted
Ptyalin, which is another name for salivary amylase, is an enzyme that begins the digestion of carbohydrates. It is secreted by the salivary glands in the mouth. When food is chewed, ptyalin mixes with it and starts breaking down complex carbohydrates like starches into simpler sugars.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
Major initiating response for peristalsis is
Correct
The primary initiating response for peristalsis is the local stretching of the gut wall by the bolus of food (chyme). When the intestinal wall stretches, it activates stretch receptors in the enteric nervous system (a network of nerves within the gut wall). This triggers a reflex known as the peristaltic reflex, which causes the smooth muscle behind the food bolus to contract (propelling the food forward) and the muscle in front of the bolus to relax.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Hormonal: While hormones like motilin can influence the rhythm and strength of gut motility, they are not the primary initiating signal for the localized, reflexive wave of peristalsis caused by the presence of a food bolus.c) Neural: The neural control of peristalsis is crucial, but it is the local stretching (a mechanical stimulus) that activates the enteric nervous system to initiate the reflex. Therefore, the stretching is the cause, and the neural response is the mechanism.
d) All: Since hormonal and neural factors are not the primary initiating cause in the same way that local stretching is, “All” is not the correct answer. The question asks for the major initiating response, which is the physical presence and stretching caused by the food.
Incorrect
The primary initiating response for peristalsis is the local stretching of the gut wall by the bolus of food (chyme). When the intestinal wall stretches, it activates stretch receptors in the enteric nervous system (a network of nerves within the gut wall). This triggers a reflex known as the peristaltic reflex, which causes the smooth muscle behind the food bolus to contract (propelling the food forward) and the muscle in front of the bolus to relax.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Hormonal: While hormones like motilin can influence the rhythm and strength of gut motility, they are not the primary initiating signal for the localized, reflexive wave of peristalsis caused by the presence of a food bolus.c) Neural: The neural control of peristalsis is crucial, but it is the local stretching (a mechanical stimulus) that activates the enteric nervous system to initiate the reflex. Therefore, the stretching is the cause, and the neural response is the mechanism.
d) All: Since hormonal and neural factors are not the primary initiating cause in the same way that local stretching is, “All” is not the correct answer. The question asks for the major initiating response, which is the physical presence and stretching caused by the food.
Unattempted
The primary initiating response for peristalsis is the local stretching of the gut wall by the bolus of food (chyme). When the intestinal wall stretches, it activates stretch receptors in the enteric nervous system (a network of nerves within the gut wall). This triggers a reflex known as the peristaltic reflex, which causes the smooth muscle behind the food bolus to contract (propelling the food forward) and the muscle in front of the bolus to relax.
Why the other options are incorrect:
a) Hormonal: While hormones like motilin can influence the rhythm and strength of gut motility, they are not the primary initiating signal for the localized, reflexive wave of peristalsis caused by the presence of a food bolus.c) Neural: The neural control of peristalsis is crucial, but it is the local stretching (a mechanical stimulus) that activates the enteric nervous system to initiate the reflex. Therefore, the stretching is the cause, and the neural response is the mechanism.
d) All: Since hormonal and neural factors are not the primary initiating cause in the same way that local stretching is, “All” is not the correct answer. The question asks for the major initiating response, which is the physical presence and stretching caused by the food.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
True about basic rhythm of GIT?
A)Fluctuate between -65 and -40 mV
B) Initiated by zymogen cells
C) Pacemaker cells are present in proximal stomachCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
Myenteric plexus is present in
Correct
The myenteric plexus, also known as Auerbach‘s plexus, is a major component of the enteric nervous system. It‘s located between the two smooth muscle layers of the muscularis externa in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract—the inner circular layer and the outer longitudinal layer. This plexus is primarily responsible for controlling the motility of the gut, including the rhythmic contractions of peristalsis and segmentation.
Incorrect
The myenteric plexus, also known as Auerbach‘s plexus, is a major component of the enteric nervous system. It‘s located between the two smooth muscle layers of the muscularis externa in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract—the inner circular layer and the outer longitudinal layer. This plexus is primarily responsible for controlling the motility of the gut, including the rhythmic contractions of peristalsis and segmentation.
Unattempted
The myenteric plexus, also known as Auerbach‘s plexus, is a major component of the enteric nervous system. It‘s located between the two smooth muscle layers of the muscularis externa in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract—the inner circular layer and the outer longitudinal layer. This plexus is primarily responsible for controlling the motility of the gut, including the rhythmic contractions of peristalsis and segmentation.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Receptor for absorption of Vit. B12 intrinsic factor complex is located in:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
Which vitamins are synthesised by intestinal bacteria?
Correct
The bacteria in the gut, collectively known as the intestinal flora or gut microbiota, play a crucial role in synthesizing certain vitamins. Specifically, they produce a significant amount of Vitamin K and several B vitamins.
Vitamin K: The gut bacteria, particularly E. coli and other species, produce vitamin K2 (menaquinone). This vitamin is essential for blood clotting and bone metabolism.
B Vitamins: Gut bacteria synthesize several B vitamins, including biotin(B7), folate (B9), thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), pantothenic acid (B5), and pyridoxine (B6)
Incorrect
The bacteria in the gut, collectively known as the intestinal flora or gut microbiota, play a crucial role in synthesizing certain vitamins. Specifically, they produce a significant amount of Vitamin K and several B vitamins.
Vitamin K: The gut bacteria, particularly E. coli and other species, produce vitamin K2 (menaquinone). This vitamin is essential for blood clotting and bone metabolism.
B Vitamins: Gut bacteria synthesize several B vitamins, including biotin(B7), folate (B9), thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), pantothenic acid (B5), and pyridoxine (B6)
Unattempted
The bacteria in the gut, collectively known as the intestinal flora or gut microbiota, play a crucial role in synthesizing certain vitamins. Specifically, they produce a significant amount of Vitamin K and several B vitamins.
Vitamin K: The gut bacteria, particularly E. coli and other species, produce vitamin K2 (menaquinone). This vitamin is essential for blood clotting and bone metabolism.
B Vitamins: Gut bacteria synthesize several B vitamins, including biotin(B7), folate (B9), thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), pantothenic acid (B5), and pyridoxine (B6)
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contractions in this situation is
Correct
The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that causes increased motility of the colon in response to distension of the stomach by food. This reflex is particularly strong in infants and is the reason they often have a bowel movement shortly after a meal. The presence of food in the stomach stimulates nerve signals that travel to the colon, initiating the peristaltic contractions that lead to defecation. a) Gastroileal reflex: This reflex increases the motility of the ileum (the final part of the small intestine) in response to food entering the stomach, pushing contents into the large intestine. While related, it‘s not the direct cause of the colonic contractions leading to defecation.
b) Enterogastric reflex: This reflex is initiated by the presence of chyme (partially digested food) in the duodenum and works to slow down stomach motility and emptying. It has the opposite effect of what is described in the question.
c) Increased circulating levels of CCK: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone released by the small intestine in response to fats and proteins. While CCK does influence gut motility, it‘s not the primary, direct cause of the post-meal colonic contractions described in this reflex.
Incorrect
The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that causes increased motility of the colon in response to distension of the stomach by food. This reflex is particularly strong in infants and is the reason they often have a bowel movement shortly after a meal. The presence of food in the stomach stimulates nerve signals that travel to the colon, initiating the peristaltic contractions that lead to defecation. a) Gastroileal reflex: This reflex increases the motility of the ileum (the final part of the small intestine) in response to food entering the stomach, pushing contents into the large intestine. While related, it‘s not the direct cause of the colonic contractions leading to defecation.
b) Enterogastric reflex: This reflex is initiated by the presence of chyme (partially digested food) in the duodenum and works to slow down stomach motility and emptying. It has the opposite effect of what is described in the question.
c) Increased circulating levels of CCK: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone released by the small intestine in response to fats and proteins. While CCK does influence gut motility, it‘s not the primary, direct cause of the post-meal colonic contractions described in this reflex.
Unattempted
The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that causes increased motility of the colon in response to distension of the stomach by food. This reflex is particularly strong in infants and is the reason they often have a bowel movement shortly after a meal. The presence of food in the stomach stimulates nerve signals that travel to the colon, initiating the peristaltic contractions that lead to defecation. a) Gastroileal reflex: This reflex increases the motility of the ileum (the final part of the small intestine) in response to food entering the stomach, pushing contents into the large intestine. While related, it‘s not the direct cause of the colonic contractions leading to defecation.
b) Enterogastric reflex: This reflex is initiated by the presence of chyme (partially digested food) in the duodenum and works to slow down stomach motility and emptying. It has the opposite effect of what is described in the question.
c) Increased circulating levels of CCK: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone released by the small intestine in response to fats and proteins. While CCK does influence gut motility, it‘s not the primary, direct cause of the post-meal colonic contractions described in this reflex.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
All the following hormones have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except
Correct
All the hormones listed have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except for estradiol. Estradiol, like other steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, cortisol), is lipid-soluble and can easily diffuse across the cell membrane. Its receptors are located inside the cell, either in the cytoplasm or the nucleus. Once bound to its receptor, the hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor, directly influencing gene expression. a) Thyrotropin: Thyrotropin (TSH) is a peptide hormone. Its receptors are located on the plasma membrane of thyroid cells. Binding to these receptors activates a G protein-coupled signaling pathway.
b) Glucagon: Glucagon is a peptide hormone. It binds to receptors on the plasma membrane of liver and fat cells, activating a G protein-coupled signaling pathway that increases blood glucose levels.
d) Epinephrine: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a catecholamine hormone. It is water-soluble and cannot cross the cell membrane. It binds to adrenergic receptors on the plasma membrane of various target cells, triggering a cascade of intracellular events.
Incorrect
All the hormones listed have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except for estradiol. Estradiol, like other steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, cortisol), is lipid-soluble and can easily diffuse across the cell membrane. Its receptors are located inside the cell, either in the cytoplasm or the nucleus. Once bound to its receptor, the hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor, directly influencing gene expression. a) Thyrotropin: Thyrotropin (TSH) is a peptide hormone. Its receptors are located on the plasma membrane of thyroid cells. Binding to these receptors activates a G protein-coupled signaling pathway.
b) Glucagon: Glucagon is a peptide hormone. It binds to receptors on the plasma membrane of liver and fat cells, activating a G protein-coupled signaling pathway that increases blood glucose levels.
d) Epinephrine: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a catecholamine hormone. It is water-soluble and cannot cross the cell membrane. It binds to adrenergic receptors on the plasma membrane of various target cells, triggering a cascade of intracellular events.
Unattempted
All the hormones listed have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except for estradiol. Estradiol, like other steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, cortisol), is lipid-soluble and can easily diffuse across the cell membrane. Its receptors are located inside the cell, either in the cytoplasm or the nucleus. Once bound to its receptor, the hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor, directly influencing gene expression. a) Thyrotropin: Thyrotropin (TSH) is a peptide hormone. Its receptors are located on the plasma membrane of thyroid cells. Binding to these receptors activates a G protein-coupled signaling pathway.
b) Glucagon: Glucagon is a peptide hormone. It binds to receptors on the plasma membrane of liver and fat cells, activating a G protein-coupled signaling pathway that increases blood glucose levels.
d) Epinephrine: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a catecholamine hormone. It is water-soluble and cannot cross the cell membrane. It binds to adrenergic receptors on the plasma membrane of various target cells, triggering a cascade of intracellular events.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Thromboxane A2 is mainly produced by
Correct
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is a type of eicosanoid, a biologically active lipid. It is primarily produced by activated platelets. Its main functions are to promote platelet aggregation (clumping) and vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). Both of these actions are crucial for forming a blood clot to stop bleeding at the site of a vascular injury.
Incorrect
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is a type of eicosanoid, a biologically active lipid. It is primarily produced by activated platelets. Its main functions are to promote platelet aggregation (clumping) and vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). Both of these actions are crucial for forming a blood clot to stop bleeding at the site of a vascular injury.
Unattempted
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is a type of eicosanoid, a biologically active lipid. It is primarily produced by activated platelets. Its main functions are to promote platelet aggregation (clumping) and vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). Both of these actions are crucial for forming a blood clot to stop bleeding at the site of a vascular injury.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
The Following are Gastrointestinal Hormones
A.CCK-PZ
B.GIP
C.Motilin
D.ChymotrypsinCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
Longest transit time in GIT is seen in:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
Luteal phase dominant hormone
Correct
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is the period after ovulation. During this phase, the ruptured follicle in the ovary develops into a temporary endocrine structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum‘s primary function is to secrete large amounts of progesterone, along with some estrogen.
Incorrect
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is the period after ovulation. During this phase, the ruptured follicle in the ovary develops into a temporary endocrine structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum‘s primary function is to secrete large amounts of progesterone, along with some estrogen.
Unattempted
The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is the period after ovulation. During this phase, the ruptured follicle in the ovary develops into a temporary endocrine structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum‘s primary function is to secrete large amounts of progesterone, along with some estrogen.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
Which of the following is not secreted by the pancreas?
Correct
Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach, not the pancreas. It is the inactive precursor (zymogen) of pepsin, an enzyme responsible for protein digestion in the highly acidic environment of the stomach.
Pancreatic Secretions
The pancreas secretes a variety of enzymes as inactive proenzymes to prevent it from digesting itself. These include:a) Procarboxypeptidase: This is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase, a protease that digests proteins in the small intestine.
b) Trypsinogen: This is the inactive form of trypsin, a key protease that, once activated, also activates other pancreatic enzymes.
c) Phospholipase A: This enzyme is secreted as its inactive precursor, prophospholipase, and is responsible for breaking down phospholipids.
Incorrect
Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach, not the pancreas. It is the inactive precursor (zymogen) of pepsin, an enzyme responsible for protein digestion in the highly acidic environment of the stomach.
Pancreatic Secretions
The pancreas secretes a variety of enzymes as inactive proenzymes to prevent it from digesting itself. These include:a) Procarboxypeptidase: This is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase, a protease that digests proteins in the small intestine.
b) Trypsinogen: This is the inactive form of trypsin, a key protease that, once activated, also activates other pancreatic enzymes.
c) Phospholipase A: This enzyme is secreted as its inactive precursor, prophospholipase, and is responsible for breaking down phospholipids.
Unattempted
Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach, not the pancreas. It is the inactive precursor (zymogen) of pepsin, an enzyme responsible for protein digestion in the highly acidic environment of the stomach.
Pancreatic Secretions
The pancreas secretes a variety of enzymes as inactive proenzymes to prevent it from digesting itself. These include:a) Procarboxypeptidase: This is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase, a protease that digests proteins in the small intestine.
b) Trypsinogen: This is the inactive form of trypsin, a key protease that, once activated, also activates other pancreatic enzymes.
c) Phospholipase A: This enzyme is secreted as its inactive precursor, prophospholipase, and is responsible for breaking down phospholipids.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
Ovarian follicles at birth in ovary are
Correct
At birth, a female infant‘s ovaries contain approximately 1-2 million primary oocytes, each enclosed within an ovarian follicle. By the time puberty begins, this number decreases significantly to about 300,000 to 400,000 due to a process called atresia (degeneration). Only a few hundred of these will ever mature and be released through ovulation during the woman‘s reproductive life.
Incorrect
At birth, a female infant‘s ovaries contain approximately 1-2 million primary oocytes, each enclosed within an ovarian follicle. By the time puberty begins, this number decreases significantly to about 300,000 to 400,000 due to a process called atresia (degeneration). Only a few hundred of these will ever mature and be released through ovulation during the woman‘s reproductive life.
Unattempted
At birth, a female infant‘s ovaries contain approximately 1-2 million primary oocytes, each enclosed within an ovarian follicle. By the time puberty begins, this number decreases significantly to about 300,000 to 400,000 due to a process called atresia (degeneration). Only a few hundred of these will ever mature and be released through ovulation during the woman‘s reproductive life.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
Which of the following is True about Secretin:
A. Inhibits gastric emptying
B. Increases bicarbonate rich pancreatic secretion
C. Potentiates Action of CCK
D.Increases Bile Salt and Bile acidsCorrect
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
Sperm acquires motility in
Correct
Spermatozoa are produced in the testes but are non-motile. They are then transported to the epididymis, a coiled tube located on the posterior surface of the testis. In the epididymis, the sperm mature and acquire the ability to move (motility) and to fertilize an egg. This process is essential for successful reproduction.
Incorrect
Spermatozoa are produced in the testes but are non-motile. They are then transported to the epididymis, a coiled tube located on the posterior surface of the testis. In the epididymis, the sperm mature and acquire the ability to move (motility) and to fertilize an egg. This process is essential for successful reproduction.
Unattempted
Spermatozoa are produced in the testes but are non-motile. They are then transported to the epididymis, a coiled tube located on the posterior surface of the testis. In the epididymis, the sperm mature and acquire the ability to move (motility) and to fertilize an egg. This process is essential for successful reproduction.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
Chyme is propelled forward in small intestine by:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
ACTH is increased in all except-
Correct
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) levels are not increased in the evening. ACTH, along with cortisol, follows a circadian rhythm and is typically at its lowest point in the late evening and throughout the night. Conversely, it is at its highest in the early morning to help the body prepare for the day.
Incorrect
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) levels are not increased in the evening. ACTH, along with cortisol, follows a circadian rhythm and is typically at its lowest point in the late evening and throughout the night. Conversely, it is at its highest in the early morning to help the body prepare for the day.
Unattempted
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) levels are not increased in the evening. ACTH, along with cortisol, follows a circadian rhythm and is typically at its lowest point in the late evening and throughout the night. Conversely, it is at its highest in the early morning to help the body prepare for the day.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
Which of the following nuclei controls the circadian rhythm?
Correct
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a tiny region in the hypothalamus of the brain, is considered the master regulator of the body‘s circadian rhythm. It receives direct input from the retina about light and dark cycles, which it uses to synchronize the body‘s internal biological clock with the external environment. This internal clock, in turn, regulates a wide range of physiological processes that follow a 24-hour cycle, including sleep-wake cycles, hormone release, body temperature, and metabolism
Incorrect
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a tiny region in the hypothalamus of the brain, is considered the master regulator of the body‘s circadian rhythm. It receives direct input from the retina about light and dark cycles, which it uses to synchronize the body‘s internal biological clock with the external environment. This internal clock, in turn, regulates a wide range of physiological processes that follow a 24-hour cycle, including sleep-wake cycles, hormone release, body temperature, and metabolism
Unattempted
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a tiny region in the hypothalamus of the brain, is considered the master regulator of the body‘s circadian rhythm. It receives direct input from the retina about light and dark cycles, which it uses to synchronize the body‘s internal biological clock with the external environment. This internal clock, in turn, regulates a wide range of physiological processes that follow a 24-hour cycle, including sleep-wake cycles, hormone release, body temperature, and metabolism
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
Earliest change in iron deficiency anaemia is
Correct
The earliest change in iron deficiency is a decrease in serum ferritin. Ferritin is the body‘s main iron-storage protein, and its levels accurately reflect the size of the body‘s iron stores. As iron stores begin to deplete, the first physiological response is to use this stored iron, leading to a drop in serum ferritin.
Incorrect
The earliest change in iron deficiency is a decrease in serum ferritin. Ferritin is the body‘s main iron-storage protein, and its levels accurately reflect the size of the body‘s iron stores. As iron stores begin to deplete, the first physiological response is to use this stored iron, leading to a drop in serum ferritin.
Unattempted
The earliest change in iron deficiency is a decrease in serum ferritin. Ferritin is the body‘s main iron-storage protein, and its levels accurately reflect the size of the body‘s iron stores. As iron stores begin to deplete, the first physiological response is to use this stored iron, leading to a drop in serum ferritin.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
Leptin level in obesity are
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted

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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
Half life of monocytes in circulation is
Correct
The half-life of a monocyte in the bloodstream is relatively short, approximately 6 hours. After circulating, monocytes migrate into tissues where they differentiate into macrophages. As macrophages, they can live for months or even years. The short circulating half-life reflects their primary function as a transit cell, moving from the bone marrow to their final destination in various tissues throughout the body.
Incorrect
The half-life of a monocyte in the bloodstream is relatively short, approximately 6 hours. After circulating, monocytes migrate into tissues where they differentiate into macrophages. As macrophages, they can live for months or even years. The short circulating half-life reflects their primary function as a transit cell, moving from the bone marrow to their final destination in various tissues throughout the body.
Unattempted
The half-life of a monocyte in the bloodstream is relatively short, approximately 6 hours. After circulating, monocytes migrate into tissues where they differentiate into macrophages. As macrophages, they can live for months or even years. The short circulating half-life reflects their primary function as a transit cell, moving from the bone marrow to their final destination in various tissues throughout the body.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
The normal A/G ratio blood is-
Correct
The A/G ratio is the ratio of albumin (A) to globulin (G) in the blood. Albumin and globulin are the two main types of protein in the blood. The normal A/G ratio is typically slightly greater than 1, with a common clinical range being 1.2 to 2.2. This means there is roughly twice as much albumin as globulin in the blood, so 2:1 is the most accurate representation among the choices.
Incorrect
The A/G ratio is the ratio of albumin (A) to globulin (G) in the blood. Albumin and globulin are the two main types of protein in the blood. The normal A/G ratio is typically slightly greater than 1, with a common clinical range being 1.2 to 2.2. This means there is roughly twice as much albumin as globulin in the blood, so 2:1 is the most accurate representation among the choices.
Unattempted
The A/G ratio is the ratio of albumin (A) to globulin (G) in the blood. Albumin and globulin are the two main types of protein in the blood. The normal A/G ratio is typically slightly greater than 1, with a common clinical range being 1.2 to 2.2. This means there is roughly twice as much albumin as globulin in the blood, so 2:1 is the most accurate representation among the choices.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
Which of the following hormones is an example of a peptide hormone
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
Erythopoiesis in gestation age takes place in
Correct
Erythropoiesis, the process of forming red blood cells, begins very early in gestation. The initial site of erythropoiesis in the human embryo, from approximately the third week of gestation, is the yolk sac. This phase is known as the mesoblastic or yolk sac phase. Later in development, the site of erythropoiesis shifts to the liver and spleen (hepatic phase) and then finally to the bone marrow (myeloid phase), which becomes the primary site of red blood cell production from the last trimester and throughout life.
Incorrect
Erythropoiesis, the process of forming red blood cells, begins very early in gestation. The initial site of erythropoiesis in the human embryo, from approximately the third week of gestation, is the yolk sac. This phase is known as the mesoblastic or yolk sac phase. Later in development, the site of erythropoiesis shifts to the liver and spleen (hepatic phase) and then finally to the bone marrow (myeloid phase), which becomes the primary site of red blood cell production from the last trimester and throughout life.
Unattempted
Erythropoiesis, the process of forming red blood cells, begins very early in gestation. The initial site of erythropoiesis in the human embryo, from approximately the third week of gestation, is the yolk sac. This phase is known as the mesoblastic or yolk sac phase. Later in development, the site of erythropoiesis shifts to the liver and spleen (hepatic phase) and then finally to the bone marrow (myeloid phase), which becomes the primary site of red blood cell production from the last trimester and throughout life.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
cAMP action mediates all except
Correct
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
Blood supply of brain is ?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
The principle of ’’Wolff-Chaikoff effect” is used in-
Correct
The Wolff-Chaikoff effect is a physiological phenomenon where a high concentration of iodide temporarily inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis. This principle is utilized clinically to prepare thyrotoxic patients for surgery. By administering a large dose of iodide (such as Lugol‘s solution) for about 10 days before a thyroidectomy, doctors can suppress the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones, reducing the risk of a “thyroid storm” during the operation. This also decreases the vascularity of the thyroid gland, making the surgery safer.
Incorrect
The Wolff-Chaikoff effect is a physiological phenomenon where a high concentration of iodide temporarily inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis. This principle is utilized clinically to prepare thyrotoxic patients for surgery. By administering a large dose of iodide (such as Lugol‘s solution) for about 10 days before a thyroidectomy, doctors can suppress the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones, reducing the risk of a “thyroid storm” during the operation. This also decreases the vascularity of the thyroid gland, making the surgery safer.
Unattempted
The Wolff-Chaikoff effect is a physiological phenomenon where a high concentration of iodide temporarily inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis. This principle is utilized clinically to prepare thyrotoxic patients for surgery. By administering a large dose of iodide (such as Lugol‘s solution) for about 10 days before a thyroidectomy, doctors can suppress the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones, reducing the risk of a “thyroid storm” during the operation. This also decreases the vascularity of the thyroid gland, making the surgery safer.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
In Thyroid follicle for how long Thyroxine is stored?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
Transection of pituitary stalk leads to increase in
Correct
A transection of the pituitary stalk, which connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, disrupts the portal blood flow and nerve fibers. This is particularly significant for prolactin because the hypothalamus secretes a hormone called dopamine, which acts as a prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). Dopamine is constantly being transported to the anterior pituitary via the portal system to suppress prolactin release. When the pituitary stalk is cut, this inhibitory signal is removed, leading to a significant and sustained increase in prolactin secretion.
Incorrect
A transection of the pituitary stalk, which connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, disrupts the portal blood flow and nerve fibers. This is particularly significant for prolactin because the hypothalamus secretes a hormone called dopamine, which acts as a prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). Dopamine is constantly being transported to the anterior pituitary via the portal system to suppress prolactin release. When the pituitary stalk is cut, this inhibitory signal is removed, leading to a significant and sustained increase in prolactin secretion.
Unattempted
A transection of the pituitary stalk, which connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, disrupts the portal blood flow and nerve fibers. This is particularly significant for prolactin because the hypothalamus secretes a hormone called dopamine, which acts as a prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). Dopamine is constantly being transported to the anterior pituitary via the portal system to suppress prolactin release. When the pituitary stalk is cut, this inhibitory signal is removed, leading to a significant and sustained increase in prolactin secretion.
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
Prostaglandin secretion is maximum in-
Correct
Prostaglandins are a group of lipid compounds that have hormone-like effects. They are found in high concentrations in semen, with levels being up to 100 times higher than in any other body fluid. Prostaglandins in semen are thought to aid in fertilization by stimulating smooth muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract, which helps propel sperm toward the fallopian tubes.
Incorrect
Prostaglandins are a group of lipid compounds that have hormone-like effects. They are found in high concentrations in semen, with levels being up to 100 times higher than in any other body fluid. Prostaglandins in semen are thought to aid in fertilization by stimulating smooth muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract, which helps propel sperm toward the fallopian tubes.
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Prostaglandins are a group of lipid compounds that have hormone-like effects. They are found in high concentrations in semen, with levels being up to 100 times higher than in any other body fluid. Prostaglandins in semen are thought to aid in fertilization by stimulating smooth muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract, which helps propel sperm toward the fallopian tubes.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
Which of the following compound antagonizes the actions of insulin?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
Velocity of human sperm:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
Which of the following is an intrinsic pathway coagulation factor?
Correct
Coagulation is divided into the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by damage to the blood vessel itself, and it involves Factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII. Factor XII (Hageman factor) is the first factor in this cascade.
Incorrect
Coagulation is divided into the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by damage to the blood vessel itself, and it involves Factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII. Factor XII (Hageman factor) is the first factor in this cascade.
Unattempted
Coagulation is divided into the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by damage to the blood vessel itself, and it involves Factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII. Factor XII (Hageman factor) is the first factor in this cascade.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
What is the normal lifespan of a red blood cell?
Correct
The average lifespan of a red blood cell (erythrocyte) in the human body is approximately 120 days. After this period, older red blood cells are removed from circulation by macrophages, primarily in the spleen.
Incorrect
The average lifespan of a red blood cell (erythrocyte) in the human body is approximately 120 days. After this period, older red blood cells are removed from circulation by macrophages, primarily in the spleen.
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The average lifespan of a red blood cell (erythrocyte) in the human body is approximately 120 days. After this period, older red blood cells are removed from circulation by macrophages, primarily in the spleen.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
The hormone primarily responsible for development of ovarian follicles prior to ovulation is:
Correct
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors
for:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
Hormones exclusively secreted by
placenta:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
A patient with a mutation affecting the ability of Factor XIII to be activated would present with:
Correct
Factor XIII, also known as fibrin-stabilizing factor, is a transglutaminase that cross-links fibrin polymers. This process is the final step in the coagulation cascade and makes the clot stronger and more stable. A deficiency in Factor XIII would allow initial clot formation, but the clot would be weak and easily broken down, leading to delayed but severe bleeding episodes.
Incorrect
Factor XIII, also known as fibrin-stabilizing factor, is a transglutaminase that cross-links fibrin polymers. This process is the final step in the coagulation cascade and makes the clot stronger and more stable. A deficiency in Factor XIII would allow initial clot formation, but the clot would be weak and easily broken down, leading to delayed but severe bleeding episodes.
Unattempted
Factor XIII, also known as fibrin-stabilizing factor, is a transglutaminase that cross-links fibrin polymers. This process is the final step in the coagulation cascade and makes the clot stronger and more stable. A deficiency in Factor XIII would allow initial clot formation, but the clot would be weak and easily broken down, leading to delayed but severe bleeding episodes.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
Ovulation is associated with sudden
rise in:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
In a case of severe bleeding, a patient‘s body compensates by releasing which hormone from the adrenal medulla to increase blood pressure?
Correct
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released from the adrenal medulla as part of the body‘s “fight-or-flight” response to stress, including severe bleeding. It causes vasoconstriction and increases heart rate and cardiac output, all of which help to raise blood pressure and maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Incorrect
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released from the adrenal medulla as part of the body‘s “fight-or-flight” response to stress, including severe bleeding. It causes vasoconstriction and increases heart rate and cardiac output, all of which help to raise blood pressure and maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Unattempted
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released from the adrenal medulla as part of the body‘s “fight-or-flight” response to stress, including severe bleeding. It causes vasoconstriction and increases heart rate and cardiac output, all of which help to raise blood pressure and maintain blood flow to vital organs.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
Aromatase converts estrogen from:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)?
Correct
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) is a circulating anticoagulant that plays a key role in regulating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. It binds to and inhibits the complex of tissue factor and activated Factor VII (TF-VIIa), preventing excessive clot formation in the initial stages of coagulation.
Incorrect
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) is a circulating anticoagulant that plays a key role in regulating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. It binds to and inhibits the complex of tissue factor and activated Factor VII (TF-VIIa), preventing excessive clot formation in the initial stages of coagulation.
Unattempted
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) is a circulating anticoagulant that plays a key role in regulating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. It binds to and inhibits the complex of tissue factor and activated Factor VII (TF-VIIa), preventing excessive clot formation in the initial stages of coagulation.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
Insulin is essential for glucose entry
in:Correct
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
In megaloblastic anemia, which of the following is the primary defect at the cellular level that leads to the characteristic large red blood cells?
Correct
Megaloblastic anemia, caused by deficiencies in Vitamin B12 or folate, results from impaired DNA synthesis. This means the nucleus of the red blood cell precursors (erythroblasts) develops more slowly than the cytoplasm. The cell grows larger to accommodate the normal cytoplasmic growth, but it cannot divide properly due to the slowed nuclear maturation, leading to the formation of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow.
Incorrect
Megaloblastic anemia, caused by deficiencies in Vitamin B12 or folate, results from impaired DNA synthesis. This means the nucleus of the red blood cell precursors (erythroblasts) develops more slowly than the cytoplasm. The cell grows larger to accommodate the normal cytoplasmic growth, but it cannot divide properly due to the slowed nuclear maturation, leading to the formation of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow.
Unattempted
Megaloblastic anemia, caused by deficiencies in Vitamin B12 or folate, results from impaired DNA synthesis. This means the nucleus of the red blood cell precursors (erythroblasts) develops more slowly than the cytoplasm. The cell grows larger to accommodate the normal cytoplasmic growth, but it cannot divide properly due to the slowed nuclear maturation, leading to the formation of large, immature red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow.
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
Most important stimulant for bile secretion is
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
A patient is suffering from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following would be the most likely lab finding?
Correct
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of micro-clots throughout the body. This massive clotting consumes platelets and coagulation factors at a rapid rate. As a result, the tests that measure clotting time, such as prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), become prolonged because the factors are depleted.
Incorrect
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of micro-clots throughout the body. This massive clotting consumes platelets and coagulation factors at a rapid rate. As a result, the tests that measure clotting time, such as prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), become prolonged because the factors are depleted.
Unattempted
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of micro-clots throughout the body. This massive clotting consumes platelets and coagulation factors at a rapid rate. As a result, the tests that measure clotting time, such as prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), become prolonged because the factors are depleted.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
Which of the following is a function of GUT flora?
A)Fermentation of Mucin
B)Production of Vitamin K
C)Decreased Proliferation of epithelial Cells
D)Synthesis of Short chain Fatty acidCorrect
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
Spermatogenesis occurs at
Correct
Incorrect
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