PM – General Revision
PM - General Revision 1
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Night terrors are classified under which category of sleep disorders?
Correct
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
Incorrect
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
Unattempted
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
What is the primary characteristic of Delirium?
Correct
A rapid onset of confusion and changes in cognitive function, distinguishing it from dementia, which has a gradual onset. Disorganized thinking is a symptom but not the primary characteristic. Memory loss can occur in delirium but is more characteristic of dementia. Hallucinations may occur in delirium but are not a defining feature.
Incorrect
A rapid onset of confusion and changes in cognitive function, distinguishing it from dementia, which has a gradual onset. Disorganized thinking is a symptom but not the primary characteristic. Memory loss can occur in delirium but is more characteristic of dementia. Hallucinations may occur in delirium but are not a defining feature.
Unattempted
A rapid onset of confusion and changes in cognitive function, distinguishing it from dementia, which has a gradual onset. Disorganized thinking is a symptom but not the primary characteristic. Memory loss can occur in delirium but is more characteristic of dementia. Hallucinations may occur in delirium but are not a defining feature.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
Alexithymia is the difficulty in?
Correct
Identifying and describing emotions, often seen in psychiatric conditions but not a disorder itself. Experiencing pleasure is anhedonia. Recognizing faces is prosopagnosia. Understanding language is aphasia.
Incorrect
Identifying and describing emotions, often seen in psychiatric conditions but not a disorder itself. Experiencing pleasure is anhedonia. Recognizing faces is prosopagnosia. Understanding language is aphasia.
Unattempted
Identifying and describing emotions, often seen in psychiatric conditions but not a disorder itself. Experiencing pleasure is anhedonia. Recognizing faces is prosopagnosia. Understanding language is aphasia.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
Alogia, or poverty of speech, is most commonly associated with?
Correct
Schizophrenia, representing a negative symptom where the individual speaks very little and may appear unresponsive in conversation. Major depressive disorder can include decreased speech but is not specifically characterized by alogia. Bipolar disorder may involve decreased speech during depressive episodes but not specifically alogia. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry, not alogia.
Incorrect
Schizophrenia, representing a negative symptom where the individual speaks very little and may appear unresponsive in conversation. Major depressive disorder can include decreased speech but is not specifically characterized by alogia. Bipolar disorder may involve decreased speech during depressive episodes but not specifically alogia. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry, not alogia.
Unattempted
Schizophrenia, representing a negative symptom where the individual speaks very little and may appear unresponsive in conversation. Major depressive disorder can include decreased speech but is not specifically characterized by alogia. Bipolar disorder may involve decreased speech during depressive episodes but not specifically alogia. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry, not alogia.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
What nutrient deficiency is most associated with beriberi?
Correct
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
Incorrect
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
Unattempted
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Lesions of necrobiosis lipoidica in diabetes are found on
Correct
Necrobiosis lipoidica is a rare, chronic, and idiopathic disease characterized by collagen degeneration that causes skin lesions, typically on the anterior shin surface. This disease is classically associated with diabetes mellitus, typically type 1, and carries a risk of ulceration. Skin changes include thickening of the blood vessel walls, collagen deterioration, granuloma formation, and fat deposition.
Incorrect
Necrobiosis lipoidica is a rare, chronic, and idiopathic disease characterized by collagen degeneration that causes skin lesions, typically on the anterior shin surface. This disease is classically associated with diabetes mellitus, typically type 1, and carries a risk of ulceration. Skin changes include thickening of the blood vessel walls, collagen deterioration, granuloma formation, and fat deposition.
Unattempted
Necrobiosis lipoidica is a rare, chronic, and idiopathic disease characterized by collagen degeneration that causes skin lesions, typically on the anterior shin surface. This disease is classically associated with diabetes mellitus, typically type 1, and carries a risk of ulceration. Skin changes include thickening of the blood vessel walls, collagen deterioration, granuloma formation, and fat deposition.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
Mee’s lines is suggestive of which of the following
Correct
Chronic arsenic intoxication can produce confusion and memory loss associated with nausea,
weight loss, peripheral neuropathy, pigmentation and scaling of the skin, and Mee’s lines – transverse
white lines of fingernails.Incorrect
Chronic arsenic intoxication can produce confusion and memory loss associated with nausea,
weight loss, peripheral neuropathy, pigmentation and scaling of the skin, and Mee’s lines – transverse
white lines of fingernails.Unattempted
Chronic arsenic intoxication can produce confusion and memory loss associated with nausea,
weight loss, peripheral neuropathy, pigmentation and scaling of the skin, and Mee’s lines – transverse
white lines of fingernails. -
Question 8 of 50
8. Question
Human rabies postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) consists of five doses of purified inactivated rabies vaccine given on days
Correct
1-mL doses of purified inactivated rabies vaccine are given on 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28 days
Incorrect
1-mL doses of purified inactivated rabies vaccine are given on 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28 days
Unattempted
1-mL doses of purified inactivated rabies vaccine are given on 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28 days
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
What is the effect of omega-3 fatty acids on health?
Correct
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
Incorrect
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
Unattempted
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Neonatal hypothyroidism is most frequently due to
Correct
Neonatal hypothyroidism is due to thyroid gland dysgenesis in 80 – 85%, to inborn errors of thyroid
hormone synthesis in 10 – 15% & is TSH-R antibody-mediated in 5% of affected newborns.Incorrect
Neonatal hypothyroidism is due to thyroid gland dysgenesis in 80 – 85%, to inborn errors of thyroid
hormone synthesis in 10 – 15% & is TSH-R antibody-mediated in 5% of affected newborns.Unattempted
Neonatal hypothyroidism is due to thyroid gland dysgenesis in 80 – 85%, to inborn errors of thyroid
hormone synthesis in 10 – 15% & is TSH-R antibody-mediated in 5% of affected newborns. -
Question 11 of 50
11. Question
Postpartum thyroiditis occurs how many months after pregnancy
Correct
Postpartum thyroiditis occurs 3 – 6 months after pregnancy
Incorrect
Postpartum thyroiditis occurs 3 – 6 months after pregnancy
Unattempted
Postpartum thyroiditis occurs 3 – 6 months after pregnancy
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
The absorption of which nutrient is enhanced by vitamin C?
Correct
Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron, particularly non-heme iron from plant sources. Calcium absorption is enhanced by vitamin D. Magnesium and zinc absorption can be affected by various factors but are not directly enhanced by vitamin C.
Incorrect
Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron, particularly non-heme iron from plant sources. Calcium absorption is enhanced by vitamin D. Magnesium and zinc absorption can be affected by various factors but are not directly enhanced by vitamin C.
Unattempted
Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron, particularly non-heme iron from plant sources. Calcium absorption is enhanced by vitamin D. Magnesium and zinc absorption can be affected by various factors but are not directly enhanced by vitamin C.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
Felty’s syndrome consists of all except
Correct
Felty’s syndrome consists of chronic RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia, anemia & thrombocytopenia.
Incorrect
Felty’s syndrome consists of chronic RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia, anemia & thrombocytopenia.
Unattempted
Felty’s syndrome consists of chronic RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia, anemia & thrombocytopenia.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
What is the main feature of Kayser-Fleischer rings?
Correct
Wilson‘s disease; Kayser-Fleischer rings are copper deposits in the cornea indicative of Wilson‘s disease. Hemochromatosis involves iron overload. Alkaptonuria leads to homogentisic acid accumulation, affecting connective tissue. Cystinosis involves cystine crystals in tissues.
Incorrect
Wilson‘s disease; Kayser-Fleischer rings are copper deposits in the cornea indicative of Wilson‘s disease. Hemochromatosis involves iron overload. Alkaptonuria leads to homogentisic acid accumulation, affecting connective tissue. Cystinosis involves cystine crystals in tissues.
Unattempted
Wilson‘s disease; Kayser-Fleischer rings are copper deposits in the cornea indicative of Wilson‘s disease. Hemochromatosis involves iron overload. Alkaptonuria leads to homogentisic acid accumulation, affecting connective tissue. Cystinosis involves cystine crystals in tissues.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
What does the presence of Osler‘s nodes indicate?
Correct
Infective endocarditis; Osler‘s nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers or toes associated with infective endocarditis. Rheumatic fever can cause erythema marginatum. Gout involves uric acid crystal deposition in joints. RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis) leads to joint inflammation.
Incorrect
Infective endocarditis; Osler‘s nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers or toes associated with infective endocarditis. Rheumatic fever can cause erythema marginatum. Gout involves uric acid crystal deposition in joints. RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis) leads to joint inflammation.
Unattempted
Infective endocarditis; Osler‘s nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers or toes associated with infective endocarditis. Rheumatic fever can cause erythema marginatum. Gout involves uric acid crystal deposition in joints. RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis) leads to joint inflammation.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
In the host, Leptospires persist in
Correct
Leptospires traverse the interstitial spaces of kidney, penetrate basement membrane of proximal
renal tubules, cross through proximal renal tubule epithelial cells, and become adherent to proximal
renal tubular brush border, from where they are excreted in the urine.Incorrect
Leptospires traverse the interstitial spaces of kidney, penetrate basement membrane of proximal
renal tubules, cross through proximal renal tubule epithelial cells, and become adherent to proximal
renal tubular brush border, from where they are excreted in the urine.Unattempted
Leptospires traverse the interstitial spaces of kidney, penetrate basement membrane of proximal
renal tubules, cross through proximal renal tubule epithelial cells, and become adherent to proximal
renal tubular brush border, from where they are excreted in the urine. -
Question 17 of 50
17. Question
What is the significance of a positive Phalen‘s test?
Correct
Carpal tunnel syndrome; Phalen‘s test, involving flexing the wrists, indicates carpal tunnel syndrome if it elicits symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation. Dupuytren‘s contracture affects fingers‘ flexion. De Quervain‘s tenosynovitis involves the thumb‘s tendons.
Incorrect
Carpal tunnel syndrome; Phalen‘s test, involving flexing the wrists, indicates carpal tunnel syndrome if it elicits symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation. Dupuytren‘s contracture affects fingers‘ flexion. De Quervain‘s tenosynovitis involves the thumb‘s tendons.
Unattempted
Carpal tunnel syndrome; Phalen‘s test, involving flexing the wrists, indicates carpal tunnel syndrome if it elicits symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation. Dupuytren‘s contracture affects fingers‘ flexion. De Quervain‘s tenosynovitis involves the thumb‘s tendons.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
What does a “positive Babinski sign” indicate?
Correct
Upper motor neuron lesion; a positive Babinski sign, where the big toe extends upward, indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Peripheral neuropathy involves damage to peripheral nerves. Lower motor neuron lesion results in flaccid paralysis. Cerebellar ataxia affects coordination and balance.
Incorrect
Upper motor neuron lesion; a positive Babinski sign, where the big toe extends upward, indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Peripheral neuropathy involves damage to peripheral nerves. Lower motor neuron lesion results in flaccid paralysis. Cerebellar ataxia affects coordination and balance.
Unattempted
Upper motor neuron lesion; a positive Babinski sign, where the big toe extends upward, indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Peripheral neuropathy involves damage to peripheral nerves. Lower motor neuron lesion results in flaccid paralysis. Cerebellar ataxia affects coordination and balance.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
What does “honeycomb lung” on a CT scan imply?
Correct
Interstitial lung disease; honeycombing is a late finding in interstitial lung disease, indicating fibrosis. COPD primarily affects airways, not typically causing honeycombing. Pulmonary embolism affects blood vessels. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) involves diffuse alveolar damage.
Incorrect
Interstitial lung disease; honeycombing is a late finding in interstitial lung disease, indicating fibrosis. COPD primarily affects airways, not typically causing honeycombing. Pulmonary embolism affects blood vessels. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) involves diffuse alveolar damage.
Unattempted
Interstitial lung disease; honeycombing is a late finding in interstitial lung disease, indicating fibrosis. COPD primarily affects airways, not typically causing honeycombing. Pulmonary embolism affects blood vessels. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) involves diffuse alveolar damage.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
What does “ivory vertebra” signify on an X-ray?
Correct
Paget‘s disease of bone or osteoblastic metastasis; increased bone density giving a white appearance on X-ray. Osteoporosis involves decreased bone density. Ankylosing spondylitis can cause vertebral fusion. Vertebral compression fracture results in decreased vertebral height.
Incorrect
Paget‘s disease of bone or osteoblastic metastasis; increased bone density giving a white appearance on X-ray. Osteoporosis involves decreased bone density. Ankylosing spondylitis can cause vertebral fusion. Vertebral compression fracture results in decreased vertebral height.
Unattempted
Paget‘s disease of bone or osteoblastic metastasis; increased bone density giving a white appearance on X-ray. Osteoporosis involves decreased bone density. Ankylosing spondylitis can cause vertebral fusion. Vertebral compression fracture results in decreased vertebral height.
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
What is the radiologic sign of aortic dissection on CT angiography?
Correct
Intimal flap; an intimal flap on CT angiography indicates aortic dissection. Mediastinal widening may suggest aortic aneurysm or other mediastinal pathology. Calcification of the aortic knob is seen with age or atherosclerosis. Pericardial effusion appears as an enlarged cardiac silhouette.
Incorrect
Intimal flap; an intimal flap on CT angiography indicates aortic dissection. Mediastinal widening may suggest aortic aneurysm or other mediastinal pathology. Calcification of the aortic knob is seen with age or atherosclerosis. Pericardial effusion appears as an enlarged cardiac silhouette.
Unattempted
Intimal flap; an intimal flap on CT angiography indicates aortic dissection. Mediastinal widening may suggest aortic aneurysm or other mediastinal pathology. Calcification of the aortic knob is seen with age or atherosclerosis. Pericardial effusion appears as an enlarged cardiac silhouette.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
What does “eggshell calcification” of lymph nodes suggest?
Correct
Silicosis; eggshell calcification of lymph nodes is characteristic of silicosis, a pneumoconiosis. Sarcoidosis can also show lymph node calcification but not typically eggshell. Tuberculosis can cause calcified granulomas. Lymphoma may cause lymph node enlargement but not eggshell calcification.
Incorrect
Silicosis; eggshell calcification of lymph nodes is characteristic of silicosis, a pneumoconiosis. Sarcoidosis can also show lymph node calcification but not typically eggshell. Tuberculosis can cause calcified granulomas. Lymphoma may cause lymph node enlargement but not eggshell calcification.
Unattempted
Silicosis; eggshell calcification of lymph nodes is characteristic of silicosis, a pneumoconiosis. Sarcoidosis can also show lymph node calcification but not typically eggshell. Tuberculosis can cause calcified granulomas. Lymphoma may cause lymph node enlargement but not eggshell calcification.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
Which is the earliest sign of congenital syphilis?
Correct
Earliest sign of congenital syphilis (2 – 6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or “snuffles” which is soon
followed by other mucocutaneous lesions which include bullae (syphilitic pemphigus), vesicles,
superficial desquamation, petechiae, and papulosquamous lesions, mucous patches & condylomata
lata.Incorrect
Earliest sign of congenital syphilis (2 – 6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or “snuffles” which is soon
followed by other mucocutaneous lesions which include bullae (syphilitic pemphigus), vesicles,
superficial desquamation, petechiae, and papulosquamous lesions, mucous patches & condylomata
lata.Unattempted
Earliest sign of congenital syphilis (2 – 6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or “snuffles” which is soon
followed by other mucocutaneous lesions which include bullae (syphilitic pemphigus), vesicles,
superficial desquamation, petechiae, and papulosquamous lesions, mucous patches & condylomata
lata. -
Question 24 of 50
24. Question
What is indicated by a “crescent sign” on imaging of the lung?
Correct
Aspergilloma; The crescent sign suggests a fungus ball within a pre-existing lung cavity, typical of aspergilloma. Tuberculosis can cause cavitation. Bronchogenic carcinoma may present as a solitary nodule or mass. Pulmonary edema shows diffuse alveolar and interstitial infiltrates.
Incorrect
Aspergilloma; The crescent sign suggests a fungus ball within a pre-existing lung cavity, typical of aspergilloma. Tuberculosis can cause cavitation. Bronchogenic carcinoma may present as a solitary nodule or mass. Pulmonary edema shows diffuse alveolar and interstitial infiltrates.
Unattempted
Aspergilloma; The crescent sign suggests a fungus ball within a pre-existing lung cavity, typical of aspergilloma. Tuberculosis can cause cavitation. Bronchogenic carcinoma may present as a solitary nodule or mass. Pulmonary edema shows diffuse alveolar and interstitial infiltrates.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
What does “pericardial knock” indicate on cardiac auscultation?
Correct
Constrictive pericarditis; A pericardial knock is an early diastolic sound, indicative of constrictive pericarditis, due to rapid cessation of ventricular filling. Aortic regurgitation presents with a diastolic murmur. Mitral valve prolapse may show a midsystolic click. Tricuspid regurgitation presents with a systolic murmur.
Incorrect
Constrictive pericarditis; A pericardial knock is an early diastolic sound, indicative of constrictive pericarditis, due to rapid cessation of ventricular filling. Aortic regurgitation presents with a diastolic murmur. Mitral valve prolapse may show a midsystolic click. Tricuspid regurgitation presents with a systolic murmur.
Unattempted
Constrictive pericarditis; A pericardial knock is an early diastolic sound, indicative of constrictive pericarditis, due to rapid cessation of ventricular filling. Aortic regurgitation presents with a diastolic murmur. Mitral valve prolapse may show a midsystolic click. Tricuspid regurgitation presents with a systolic murmur.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
What is a risk factor for Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)?
Correct
Cerebral aneurysm; The rupture of a cerebral aneurysm is a common cause of SAH, leading to bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Hypertension is a risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhage. Atherosclerosis increases the risk of ischemic stroke. Migraines are associated with headaches but not directly with SAH.
Incorrect
Cerebral aneurysm; The rupture of a cerebral aneurysm is a common cause of SAH, leading to bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Hypertension is a risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhage. Atherosclerosis increases the risk of ischemic stroke. Migraines are associated with headaches but not directly with SAH.
Unattempted
Cerebral aneurysm; The rupture of a cerebral aneurysm is a common cause of SAH, leading to bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Hypertension is a risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhage. Atherosclerosis increases the risk of ischemic stroke. Migraines are associated with headaches but not directly with SAH.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
What is the primary treatment goal for Acute Ischemic Stroke?
Correct
Reperfusion of the affected brain area; The main goal in treating acute ischemic stroke is to restore blood flow to the brain tissue as quickly as possible, typically with thrombolytics or mechanical thrombectomy. Blood pressure control is important but secondary. Reducing intracranial pressure is more relevant to hemorrhagic stroke. Preventing seizures may be a consideration but is not the primary treatment goal.
Incorrect
Reperfusion of the affected brain area; The main goal in treating acute ischemic stroke is to restore blood flow to the brain tissue as quickly as possible, typically with thrombolytics or mechanical thrombectomy. Blood pressure control is important but secondary. Reducing intracranial pressure is more relevant to hemorrhagic stroke. Preventing seizures may be a consideration but is not the primary treatment goal.
Unattempted
Reperfusion of the affected brain area; The main goal in treating acute ischemic stroke is to restore blood flow to the brain tissue as quickly as possible, typically with thrombolytics or mechanical thrombectomy. Blood pressure control is important but secondary. Reducing intracranial pressure is more relevant to hemorrhagic stroke. Preventing seizures may be a consideration but is not the primary treatment goal.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
What syndrome is associated with a triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia?
Correct
Wernicke‘s Encephalopathy; This condition is due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, typically seen in alcoholism. Korsakoff‘s syndrome involves memory loss and confabulation following Wernicke‘s. Beriberi involves thiamine deficiency but affects the cardiovascular system and peripheral nerves. Benedikt‘s syndrome involves midbrain lesions affecting ocular movements and coordination.
Incorrect
Wernicke‘s Encephalopathy; This condition is due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, typically seen in alcoholism. Korsakoff‘s syndrome involves memory loss and confabulation following Wernicke‘s. Beriberi involves thiamine deficiency but affects the cardiovascular system and peripheral nerves. Benedikt‘s syndrome involves midbrain lesions affecting ocular movements and coordination.
Unattempted
Wernicke‘s Encephalopathy; This condition is due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, typically seen in alcoholism. Korsakoff‘s syndrome involves memory loss and confabulation following Wernicke‘s. Beriberi involves thiamine deficiency but affects the cardiovascular system and peripheral nerves. Benedikt‘s syndrome involves midbrain lesions affecting ocular movements and coordination.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
What describes the visual field defect in Pituitary Adenoma?
Correct
Bitemporal hemianopsia; Compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma can lead to loss of the outer (temporal) halves of the visual field in both eyes. Homonymous hemianopsia results from post-chiasmal lesions. Central scotoma is a loss in the central field of vision. Tunnel vision involves peripheral vision loss.
Incorrect
Bitemporal hemianopsia; Compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma can lead to loss of the outer (temporal) halves of the visual field in both eyes. Homonymous hemianopsia results from post-chiasmal lesions. Central scotoma is a loss in the central field of vision. Tunnel vision involves peripheral vision loss.
Unattempted
Bitemporal hemianopsia; Compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma can lead to loss of the outer (temporal) halves of the visual field in both eyes. Homonymous hemianopsia results from post-chiasmal lesions. Central scotoma is a loss in the central field of vision. Tunnel vision involves peripheral vision loss.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
What characterizes the presentation of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)?
Correct
Rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus; CJD is a prion disease characterized by quick progression of dementia and muscle jerks. Parkinsonian features suggest Parkinson‘s disease. Focal seizures are associated with localized brain disturbances. Sensory loss is typical of peripheral neuropathies.
Incorrect
Rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus; CJD is a prion disease characterized by quick progression of dementia and muscle jerks. Parkinsonian features suggest Parkinson‘s disease. Focal seizures are associated with localized brain disturbances. Sensory loss is typical of peripheral neuropathies.
Unattempted
Rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus; CJD is a prion disease characterized by quick progression of dementia and muscle jerks. Parkinsonian features suggest Parkinson‘s disease. Focal seizures are associated with localized brain disturbances. Sensory loss is typical of peripheral neuropathies.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
Which of the following is not a presentation of tertiary syphilis?
Correct
Most common types of tertiary disease are gumma (benign granulomatous lesion), cardiovascular
syphilis (ascending aorta aneurysm) & symptomatic neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis and paresis)Incorrect
Most common types of tertiary disease are gumma (benign granulomatous lesion), cardiovascular
syphilis (ascending aorta aneurysm) & symptomatic neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis and paresis)Unattempted
Most common types of tertiary disease are gumma (benign granulomatous lesion), cardiovascular
syphilis (ascending aorta aneurysm) & symptomatic neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis and paresis) -
Question 32 of 50
32. Question
What is the classic triad of symptoms in Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?
Correct
Gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia; This triad suggests NPH, a condition involving CSF accumulation without increased pressure. Confusion, fever, and headache suggest meningitis. Weakness, numbness, and tingling could indicate peripheral neuropathy. Photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea are associated with migraines.
Incorrect
Gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia; This triad suggests NPH, a condition involving CSF accumulation without increased pressure. Confusion, fever, and headache suggest meningitis. Weakness, numbness, and tingling could indicate peripheral neuropathy. Photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea are associated with migraines.
Unattempted
Gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia; This triad suggests NPH, a condition involving CSF accumulation without increased pressure. Confusion, fever, and headache suggest meningitis. Weakness, numbness, and tingling could indicate peripheral neuropathy. Photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea are associated with migraines.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
What indicates an “epidural hematoma” on CT?
Correct
Biconvex (lentiform) hyperdense area not crossing suture lines; An epidural hematoma appears as a lens-shaped bleed that is typically arterial in origin and does not cross cranial suture lines. Subdural hematoma presents as a crescent-shaped hyperdensity crossing suture lines. Subarachnoid hemorrhage shows blood in the subarachnoid spaces. Cerebral contusion appears as an irregular area of brain tissue damage.
Incorrect
Biconvex (lentiform) hyperdense area not crossing suture lines; An epidural hematoma appears as a lens-shaped bleed that is typically arterial in origin and does not cross cranial suture lines. Subdural hematoma presents as a crescent-shaped hyperdensity crossing suture lines. Subarachnoid hemorrhage shows blood in the subarachnoid spaces. Cerebral contusion appears as an irregular area of brain tissue damage.
Unattempted
Biconvex (lentiform) hyperdense area not crossing suture lines; An epidural hematoma appears as a lens-shaped bleed that is typically arterial in origin and does not cross cranial suture lines. Subdural hematoma presents as a crescent-shaped hyperdensity crossing suture lines. Subarachnoid hemorrhage shows blood in the subarachnoid spaces. Cerebral contusion appears as an irregular area of brain tissue damage.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
What describes the mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines?
Correct
Enhancement of GABA-A receptor activity; Benzodiazepines increase the efficiency of GABA, the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, reducing neuronal excitability. NMDA receptor antagonism is a mechanism of certain anesthetics. Dopamine reuptake inhibition increases dopamine levels, used in ADHD and narcolepsy. Monoamine oxidase inhibition increases levels of neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine.
Incorrect
Enhancement of GABA-A receptor activity; Benzodiazepines increase the efficiency of GABA, the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, reducing neuronal excitability. NMDA receptor antagonism is a mechanism of certain anesthetics. Dopamine reuptake inhibition increases dopamine levels, used in ADHD and narcolepsy. Monoamine oxidase inhibition increases levels of neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine.
Unattempted
Enhancement of GABA-A receptor activity; Benzodiazepines increase the efficiency of GABA, the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, reducing neuronal excitability. NMDA receptor antagonism is a mechanism of certain anesthetics. Dopamine reuptake inhibition increases dopamine levels, used in ADHD and narcolepsy. Monoamine oxidase inhibition increases levels of neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
What characterizes the EEG findings in Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure?
Correct
Generalized high amplitude rapid spikes; During a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the EEG typically shows generalized high amplitude spikes indicating widespread brain involvement. Focal slowing indicates localized brain dysfunction. Alpha rhythm dominance is normal during wakeful relaxation. Sleep spindles are seen during stage 2 sleep.
Incorrect
Generalized high amplitude rapid spikes; During a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the EEG typically shows generalized high amplitude spikes indicating widespread brain involvement. Focal slowing indicates localized brain dysfunction. Alpha rhythm dominance is normal during wakeful relaxation. Sleep spindles are seen during stage 2 sleep.
Unattempted
Generalized high amplitude rapid spikes; During a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the EEG typically shows generalized high amplitude spikes indicating widespread brain involvement. Focal slowing indicates localized brain dysfunction. Alpha rhythm dominance is normal during wakeful relaxation. Sleep spindles are seen during stage 2 sleep.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
Which of the following is false about Rose spots in enteric
fever?Correct
Rose spots are a faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rash primarily on trunk & chest,
in ~30% of patients at the end of 1st week & resolves after 2-5 days. Salmonella can be cultured
from punch biopsies of these lesions. Difficult to detect in dark skinned patients.Incorrect
Rose spots are a faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rash primarily on trunk & chest,
in ~30% of patients at the end of 1st week & resolves after 2-5 days. Salmonella can be cultured
from punch biopsies of these lesions. Difficult to detect in dark skinned patients.Unattempted
Rose spots are a faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rash primarily on trunk & chest,
in ~30% of patients at the end of 1st week & resolves after 2-5 days. Salmonella can be cultured
from punch biopsies of these lesions. Difficult to detect in dark skinned patients. -
Question 37 of 50
37. Question
In dengue fever, the skin rash begins on
Correct
In dengue fever, skin rash occurs in 50% of cases. To start with its a diffuse flushing, midway
through illness, it is maculopapular rash, beginning on trunk & spreads centrifugally to extremities
and face, after defervescence, petechiae on extremities may occur. A second rash may appear
during recovery phase, ranging from mild maculopapular rash to severe, itchy lesion suggesting
leukocytoclastic vasculitis that resolves with desquamation over a period of 1 to 2 weeks.Incorrect
In dengue fever, skin rash occurs in 50% of cases. To start with its a diffuse flushing, midway
through illness, it is maculopapular rash, beginning on trunk & spreads centrifugally to extremities
and face, after defervescence, petechiae on extremities may occur. A second rash may appear
during recovery phase, ranging from mild maculopapular rash to severe, itchy lesion suggesting
leukocytoclastic vasculitis that resolves with desquamation over a period of 1 to 2 weeks.Unattempted
In dengue fever, skin rash occurs in 50% of cases. To start with its a diffuse flushing, midway
through illness, it is maculopapular rash, beginning on trunk & spreads centrifugally to extremities
and face, after defervescence, petechiae on extremities may occur. A second rash may appear
during recovery phase, ranging from mild maculopapular rash to severe, itchy lesion suggesting
leukocytoclastic vasculitis that resolves with desquamation over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. -
Question 38 of 50
38. Question
Which of the following causes benign quartan malaria
Correct
The four species of Plasmodium that attack humans are P. falciparum (malignant tertian malaria),
P. vivax & P. ovale (benign tertian malaria), & P. malariae (benign quartan malaria).Incorrect
The four species of Plasmodium that attack humans are P. falciparum (malignant tertian malaria),
P. vivax & P. ovale (benign tertian malaria), & P. malariae (benign quartan malaria).Unattempted
The four species of Plasmodium that attack humans are P. falciparum (malignant tertian malaria),
P. vivax & P. ovale (benign tertian malaria), & P. malariae (benign quartan malaria). -
Question 39 of 50
39. Question
What is the most effective treatment for early-stage chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Correct
Control of blood pressure and blood sugar; Early intervention with blood pressure and blood sugar control can slow the progression of CKD. High protein diet is generally discouraged in CKD due to the increased workload on the kidneys. NSAIDs can worsen kidney function. Corticosteroids are used in specific conditions like nephrotic syndrome, not routinely in CKD.
Incorrect
Control of blood pressure and blood sugar; Early intervention with blood pressure and blood sugar control can slow the progression of CKD. High protein diet is generally discouraged in CKD due to the increased workload on the kidneys. NSAIDs can worsen kidney function. Corticosteroids are used in specific conditions like nephrotic syndrome, not routinely in CKD.
Unattempted
Control of blood pressure and blood sugar; Early intervention with blood pressure and blood sugar control can slow the progression of CKD. High protein diet is generally discouraged in CKD due to the increased workload on the kidneys. NSAIDs can worsen kidney function. Corticosteroids are used in specific conditions like nephrotic syndrome, not routinely in CKD.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
What characterizes the urine output in prerenal acute kidney injury?
Correct
Low urine output due to decreased renal perfusion; Prerenal AKI results from conditions that decrease blood flow to the kidneys, leading to reduced urine output. High urine output may be seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Normal urine output with high creatinine suggests intrinsic renal damage. Anuria indicates very low or no urine output, seen in severe cases.
Incorrect
Low urine output due to decreased renal perfusion; Prerenal AKI results from conditions that decrease blood flow to the kidneys, leading to reduced urine output. High urine output may be seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Normal urine output with high creatinine suggests intrinsic renal damage. Anuria indicates very low or no urine output, seen in severe cases.
Unattempted
Low urine output due to decreased renal perfusion; Prerenal AKI results from conditions that decrease blood flow to the kidneys, leading to reduced urine output. High urine output may be seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Normal urine output with high creatinine suggests intrinsic renal damage. Anuria indicates very low or no urine output, seen in severe cases.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
What is the primary screening test for proteinuria?
Correct
Urine dipstick test; The urine dipstick test is a quick and easy method to screen for proteinuria. 24-hour urine collection quantifies exact protein loss but is more cumbersome. Serum albumin assesses protein loss’s impact on the body but doesn’t measure urine protein directly. Urine microscopy can identify cells and casts but not quantify protein.
Incorrect
Urine dipstick test; The urine dipstick test is a quick and easy method to screen for proteinuria. 24-hour urine collection quantifies exact protein loss but is more cumbersome. Serum albumin assesses protein loss’s impact on the body but doesn’t measure urine protein directly. Urine microscopy can identify cells and casts but not quantify protein.
Unattempted
Urine dipstick test; The urine dipstick test is a quick and easy method to screen for proteinuria. 24-hour urine collection quantifies exact protein loss but is more cumbersome. Serum albumin assesses protein loss’s impact on the body but doesn’t measure urine protein directly. Urine microscopy can identify cells and casts but not quantify protein.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
What indicates chronic interstitial damage on kidney biopsy?
Correct
Tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis; Chronic interstitial damage is marked by these histological changes. Crescent formation suggests rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Mesangial expansion is seen in diabetic nephropathy. IgA deposition characterizes IgA nephropathy.
Incorrect
Tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis; Chronic interstitial damage is marked by these histological changes. Crescent formation suggests rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Mesangial expansion is seen in diabetic nephropathy. IgA deposition characterizes IgA nephropathy.
Unattempted
Tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis; Chronic interstitial damage is marked by these histological changes. Crescent formation suggests rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Mesangial expansion is seen in diabetic nephropathy. IgA deposition characterizes IgA nephropathy.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
Out of the following, which is the least commonly involved site in extrapulmonary tuberculosis ?
Correct
In order of frequency, the extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in tuberculosis are the
lymph nodes, pleura, genitourinary tract, bones and joints, meninges, peritoneum & pericardiumIncorrect
In order of frequency, the extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in tuberculosis are the
lymph nodes, pleura, genitourinary tract, bones and joints, meninges, peritoneum & pericardiumUnattempted
In order of frequency, the extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in tuberculosis are the
lymph nodes, pleura, genitourinary tract, bones and joints, meninges, peritoneum & pericardium -
Question 44 of 50
44. Question
What describes Paget‘s disease of bone?
Correct
Disorganized bone remodeling; Paget‘s disease involves excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue, leading to bones that are large, weak, and deformed. Hypercalcemia can be a consequence but is not defining. Bone density increase occurs but does not accurately describe the pathology. Autoimmune bone destruction is more characteristic of conditions like RA.
Incorrect
Disorganized bone remodeling; Paget‘s disease involves excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue, leading to bones that are large, weak, and deformed. Hypercalcemia can be a consequence but is not defining. Bone density increase occurs but does not accurately describe the pathology. Autoimmune bone destruction is more characteristic of conditions like RA.
Unattempted
Disorganized bone remodeling; Paget‘s disease involves excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue, leading to bones that are large, weak, and deformed. Hypercalcemia can be a consequence but is not defining. Bone density increase occurs but does not accurately describe the pathology. Autoimmune bone destruction is more characteristic of conditions like RA.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
What laboratory finding is most indicative of active inflammation?
Correct
Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP); CRP is an acute-phase reactant produced by the liver in response to inflammation, making it a good indicator of active inflammatory processes. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) also indicates inflammation but is less specific than CRP. Positive rheumatoid factor and ANA suggest autoimmune diseases but are not direct indicators of inflammation severity.
Incorrect
Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP); CRP is an acute-phase reactant produced by the liver in response to inflammation, making it a good indicator of active inflammatory processes. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) also indicates inflammation but is less specific than CRP. Positive rheumatoid factor and ANA suggest autoimmune diseases but are not direct indicators of inflammation severity.
Unattempted
Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP); CRP is an acute-phase reactant produced by the liver in response to inflammation, making it a good indicator of active inflammatory processes. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) also indicates inflammation but is less specific than CRP. Positive rheumatoid factor and ANA suggest autoimmune diseases but are not direct indicators of inflammation severity.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
NF1 gene is on chromosome
Correct
Tumor-suppressor NF1 gene on chromosome 17. Its mutation causes von Recklinghausen’s
disease. It encodes protein neurofibromin. NF2 gene is on chromosome 22q, & encodes
neurofibromin 2, schwannomin, or merlin.Incorrect
Tumor-suppressor NF1 gene on chromosome 17. Its mutation causes von Recklinghausen’s
disease. It encodes protein neurofibromin. NF2 gene is on chromosome 22q, & encodes
neurofibromin 2, schwannomin, or merlin.Unattempted
Tumor-suppressor NF1 gene on chromosome 17. Its mutation causes von Recklinghausen’s
disease. It encodes protein neurofibromin. NF2 gene is on chromosome 22q, & encodes
neurofibromin 2, schwannomin, or merlin. -
Question 47 of 50
47. Question
How is Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA) definitively diagnosed?
Correct
Temporal artery biopsy; A biopsy showing inflammation with multinucleated giant cells confirms GCA. Elevated platelet count can be seen in GCA but is nonspecific. High-resolution ultrasound can suggest GCA but is not definitive without biopsy confirmation. Elevated liver enzymes are not directly related to GCA diagnosis.
Incorrect
Temporal artery biopsy; A biopsy showing inflammation with multinucleated giant cells confirms GCA. Elevated platelet count can be seen in GCA but is nonspecific. High-resolution ultrasound can suggest GCA but is not definitive without biopsy confirmation. Elevated liver enzymes are not directly related to GCA diagnosis.
Unattempted
Temporal artery biopsy; A biopsy showing inflammation with multinucleated giant cells confirms GCA. Elevated platelet count can be seen in GCA but is nonspecific. High-resolution ultrasound can suggest GCA but is not definitive without biopsy confirmation. Elevated liver enzymes are not directly related to GCA diagnosis.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
What is the primary feature of Takayasu‘s arteritis?
Correct
Inflammation of the aorta and its major branches; Takayasu‘s arteritis primarily affects large vessels, leading to symptoms like arm claudication and reduced pulse. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves small to medium vessels. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis is characterized by asthma, sinusitis, and eosinophilia. Henoch-Schönlein purpura affects small vessels, often presenting with palpable purpura.
Incorrect
Inflammation of the aorta and its major branches; Takayasu‘s arteritis primarily affects large vessels, leading to symptoms like arm claudication and reduced pulse. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves small to medium vessels. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis is characterized by asthma, sinusitis, and eosinophilia. Henoch-Schönlein purpura affects small vessels, often presenting with palpable purpura.
Unattempted
Inflammation of the aorta and its major branches; Takayasu‘s arteritis primarily affects large vessels, leading to symptoms like arm claudication and reduced pulse. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves small to medium vessels. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis is characterized by asthma, sinusitis, and eosinophilia. Henoch-Schönlein purpura affects small vessels, often presenting with palpable purpura.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
What clinical feature distinguishes Scleroderma from other connective tissue diseases?
Correct
Skin thickening and hardening; Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) uniquely presents with skin thickening, especially of the hands and face, due to excessive collagen deposition. Malar rash is associated with SLE. Erosive joint disease is typical of RA. Photosensitivity is seen in SLE and dermatomyositis but is not as distinguishing as skin thickening in scleroderma.
Incorrect
Skin thickening and hardening; Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) uniquely presents with skin thickening, especially of the hands and face, due to excessive collagen deposition. Malar rash is associated with SLE. Erosive joint disease is typical of RA. Photosensitivity is seen in SLE and dermatomyositis but is not as distinguishing as skin thickening in scleroderma.
Unattempted
Skin thickening and hardening; Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) uniquely presents with skin thickening, especially of the hands and face, due to excessive collagen deposition. Malar rash is associated with SLE. Erosive joint disease is typical of RA. Photosensitivity is seen in SLE and dermatomyositis but is not as distinguishing as skin thickening in scleroderma.
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
Which of the following is not a feature of Type 1 (Distal) RTA?
Correct
Type 1 (Distal) RTA presents as hypokalemia, hypocitraturia, hypercalciuria, nephrocalcinosis,
nephrolithiasis. Chronic untreated acidosis may lead to rickets or osteomalacia.Incorrect
Type 1 (Distal) RTA presents as hypokalemia, hypocitraturia, hypercalciuria, nephrocalcinosis,
nephrolithiasis. Chronic untreated acidosis may lead to rickets or osteomalacia.Unattempted
Type 1 (Distal) RTA presents as hypokalemia, hypocitraturia, hypercalciuria, nephrocalcinosis,
nephrolithiasis. Chronic untreated acidosis may lead to rickets or osteomalacia.

