PM – Genetic, Nutrition, Metabolic, Psychiatry
PM - Genetic, Nutrition, Metabolic, Psychiatry
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
What neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily associated with Depression?
Correct
Serotonin imbalance is most closely associated with depression, impacting mood, emotions, and sleep. Dopamine imbalance is linked to schizophrenia and Parkinson‘s disease. GABA is related to anxiety disorders due to its role in inhibitory neurotransmission. Acetylcholine imbalance is associated with Alzheimer‘s disease.
Incorrect
Serotonin imbalance is most closely associated with depression, impacting mood, emotions, and sleep. Dopamine imbalance is linked to schizophrenia and Parkinson‘s disease. GABA is related to anxiety disorders due to its role in inhibitory neurotransmission. Acetylcholine imbalance is associated with Alzheimer‘s disease.
Unattempted
Serotonin imbalance is most closely associated with depression, impacting mood, emotions, and sleep. Dopamine imbalance is linked to schizophrenia and Parkinson‘s disease. GABA is related to anxiety disorders due to its role in inhibitory neurotransmission. Acetylcholine imbalance is associated with Alzheimer‘s disease.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
Which is a core symptom of Autism Spectrum Disorder?
Correct
Impaired social interaction is a core symptom of Autism Spectrum Disorder, affecting the ability to communicate and interact. Hallucinations are typically associated with psychotic disorders. Mood swings can occur in bipolar disorder. Anhedonia is often seen in depression.
Incorrect
Impaired social interaction is a core symptom of Autism Spectrum Disorder, affecting the ability to communicate and interact. Hallucinations are typically associated with psychotic disorders. Mood swings can occur in bipolar disorder. Anhedonia is often seen in depression.
Unattempted
Impaired social interaction is a core symptom of Autism Spectrum Disorder, affecting the ability to communicate and interact. Hallucinations are typically associated with psychotic disorders. Mood swings can occur in bipolar disorder. Anhedonia is often seen in depression.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
The presence of both manic and depressive episodes characterizes which condition?
Correct
Bipolar disorder is characterized by the presence of both manic and depressive episodes. Major depressive disorder involves depressive episodes only. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent and excessive anxiety. Schizophrenia involves symptoms like delusions and hallucinations.
Incorrect
Bipolar disorder is characterized by the presence of both manic and depressive episodes. Major depressive disorder involves depressive episodes only. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent and excessive anxiety. Schizophrenia involves symptoms like delusions and hallucinations.
Unattempted
Bipolar disorder is characterized by the presence of both manic and depressive episodes. Major depressive disorder involves depressive episodes only. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent and excessive anxiety. Schizophrenia involves symptoms like delusions and hallucinations.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
What is the hallmark of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Correct
Recurrent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) are hallmarks of OCD, aimed at preventing distress or a feared event. Flashbacks are characteristic of PTSD. Intrusive thoughts without compulsions may suggest an anxiety disorder. Delusions are false beliefs seen in psychotic disorders.
Incorrect
Recurrent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) are hallmarks of OCD, aimed at preventing distress or a feared event. Flashbacks are characteristic of PTSD. Intrusive thoughts without compulsions may suggest an anxiety disorder. Delusions are false beliefs seen in psychotic disorders.
Unattempted
Recurrent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) are hallmarks of OCD, aimed at preventing distress or a feared event. Flashbacks are characteristic of PTSD. Intrusive thoughts without compulsions may suggest an anxiety disorder. Delusions are false beliefs seen in psychotic disorders.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
Which symptom is not typically seen in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
Correct
Psychomotor retardation, a slowing down of thought and physical movements, is not typical of ADHD, which is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. Hyperactivity, Impulsivity, and Inattention are core symptoms of ADHD.
Incorrect
Psychomotor retardation, a slowing down of thought and physical movements, is not typical of ADHD, which is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. Hyperactivity, Impulsivity, and Inattention are core symptoms of ADHD.
Unattempted
Psychomotor retardation, a slowing down of thought and physical movements, is not typical of ADHD, which is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. Hyperactivity, Impulsivity, and Inattention are core symptoms of ADHD.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Anorexia nervosa is primarily characterized by?
Correct
An intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to severe restriction of food intake, characterizes anorexia nervosa. Binge eating followed by purging characterizes bulimia nervosa. Excessive eating without compensatory behaviors describes binge eating disorder. Preoccupation with food and high body mass index (BMI) may suggest overeating or obesity, not anorexia.
Incorrect
An intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to severe restriction of food intake, characterizes anorexia nervosa. Binge eating followed by purging characterizes bulimia nervosa. Excessive eating without compensatory behaviors describes binge eating disorder. Preoccupation with food and high body mass index (BMI) may suggest overeating or obesity, not anorexia.
Unattempted
An intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to severe restriction of food intake, characterizes anorexia nervosa. Binge eating followed by purging characterizes bulimia nervosa. Excessive eating without compensatory behaviors describes binge eating disorder. Preoccupation with food and high body mass index (BMI) may suggest overeating or obesity, not anorexia.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
The concept of “double bind” communication is most associated with the development of?
Correct
Schizophrenia; this theory suggests that receiving contradictory messages from significant others in a position of authority can contribute to schizophrenia. Bipolar disorder involves mood swings. Borderline personality disorder involves unstable relationships, self-image, and affects. Dissociative identity disorder involves two or more distinct identities.
Incorrect
Schizophrenia; this theory suggests that receiving contradictory messages from significant others in a position of authority can contribute to schizophrenia. Bipolar disorder involves mood swings. Borderline personality disorder involves unstable relationships, self-image, and affects. Dissociative identity disorder involves two or more distinct identities.
Unattempted
Schizophrenia; this theory suggests that receiving contradictory messages from significant others in a position of authority can contribute to schizophrenia. Bipolar disorder involves mood swings. Borderline personality disorder involves unstable relationships, self-image, and affects. Dissociative identity disorder involves two or more distinct identities.
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
Echolalia is most commonly associated with?
Correct
Autism Spectrum Disorder; echolalia is the repetitive vocalization of words or phrases heard by the individual, common in autism. Tourette syndrome involves vocal and motor tics. Schizophrenia can involve disorganized speech but not specifically echolalia. Alzheimer’s disease involves memory loss primarily, not echolalia.
Incorrect
Autism Spectrum Disorder; echolalia is the repetitive vocalization of words or phrases heard by the individual, common in autism. Tourette syndrome involves vocal and motor tics. Schizophrenia can involve disorganized speech but not specifically echolalia. Alzheimer’s disease involves memory loss primarily, not echolalia.
Unattempted
Autism Spectrum Disorder; echolalia is the repetitive vocalization of words or phrases heard by the individual, common in autism. Tourette syndrome involves vocal and motor tics. Schizophrenia can involve disorganized speech but not specifically echolalia. Alzheimer’s disease involves memory loss primarily, not echolalia.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others?
Correct
Antisocial personality disorder; individuals often display a lack of empathy and a tendency towards deceitfulness or manipulation. Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness and control.
Incorrect
Antisocial personality disorder; individuals often display a lack of empathy and a tendency towards deceitfulness or manipulation. Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness and control.
Unattempted
Antisocial personality disorder; individuals often display a lack of empathy and a tendency towards deceitfulness or manipulation. Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness and control.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Hallucinations which occur at the ‘start’ of sleep is
Correct
Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid perceptual experiences that occur at the onset of sleep (as one is falling asleep).
They are common in narcolepsy but can also occur in healthy individuals.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur upon awakening from sleep.
Jactatio nocturna capitis is a benign sleep-related movement disorder, unrelated to hallucinations.
Incorrect
Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid perceptual experiences that occur at the onset of sleep (as one is falling asleep).
They are common in narcolepsy but can also occur in healthy individuals.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur upon awakening from sleep.
Jactatio nocturna capitis is a benign sleep-related movement disorder, unrelated to hallucinations.
Unattempted
Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid perceptual experiences that occur at the onset of sleep (as one is falling asleep).
They are common in narcolepsy but can also occur in healthy individuals.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur upon awakening from sleep.
Jactatio nocturna capitis is a benign sleep-related movement disorder, unrelated to hallucinations.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
What does “flight of ideas” refer to in psychiatric evaluation?
Correct
A rapid shift from one topic to another, often seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder, indicating a disorganized thought process. Circumstantiality involves unnecessary detail but eventually reaching the point. Tangentiality means never reaching the intended point. Loose associations involve a disorganized thought process but less rapid shifting than flight of ideas.
Incorrect
A rapid shift from one topic to another, often seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder, indicating a disorganized thought process. Circumstantiality involves unnecessary detail but eventually reaching the point. Tangentiality means never reaching the intended point. Loose associations involve a disorganized thought process but less rapid shifting than flight of ideas.
Unattempted
A rapid shift from one topic to another, often seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder, indicating a disorganized thought process. Circumstantiality involves unnecessary detail but eventually reaching the point. Tangentiality means never reaching the intended point. Loose associations involve a disorganized thought process but less rapid shifting than flight of ideas.
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
Night terrors are classified under which category of sleep disorders?
Correct
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
Incorrect
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
Unattempted
Parasomnias, which involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, or dreams occurring while falling asleep, sleeping, between sleep stages, or during arousal from sleep. Insomnia involves difficulty falling or staying asleep. Narcolepsy involves daytime sleep attacks. Sleep apnea involves breathing interruptions during sleep.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
What nutrient deficiency is most associated with beriberi?
Correct
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
Incorrect
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
Unattempted
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra. Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy. Iron deficiency leads to anemia.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
The formation of the mature Vitamin D hormone occurs in
Correct
The formation of the mature Vitamin D hormone occurs in the kidney after second hydroxylation
Incorrect
The formation of the mature Vitamin D hormone occurs in the kidney after second hydroxylation
Unattempted
The formation of the mature Vitamin D hormone occurs in the kidney after second hydroxylation
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
In simple metabolic acidosis, PaCO2
would decrease by how much for each mmol/L decrease in [HCO3-]Correct
Degree of respiratory compensation in simple metabolic acidosis is predicted by PaCO2
= (1.5 x
[HCO3–]) + 8 ± 2. Thus, PaCO2
decreases by 1.25 mm Hg for each mmol/L decrease in [HCO3–].
Values for PaCO2
<24 or >28 mmHg define a mixed disturbance (metabolic acidosis and respiratory
alkalosis or metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis, respectively)Incorrect
Degree of respiratory compensation in simple metabolic acidosis is predicted by PaCO2
= (1.5 x
[HCO3–]) + 8 ± 2. Thus, PaCO2
decreases by 1.25 mm Hg for each mmol/L decrease in [HCO3–].
Values for PaCO2
<24 or >28 mmHg define a mixed disturbance (metabolic acidosis and respiratory
alkalosis or metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis, respectively)Unattempted
Degree of respiratory compensation in simple metabolic acidosis is predicted by PaCO2
= (1.5 x
[HCO3–]) + 8 ± 2. Thus, PaCO2
decreases by 1.25 mm Hg for each mmol/L decrease in [HCO3–].
Values for PaCO2
<24 or >28 mmHg define a mixed disturbance (metabolic acidosis and respiratory
alkalosis or metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis, respectively) -
Question 16 of 50
16. Question
All are seen in Marasmus except
Correct
Marasmus is a form of severe protein–energy malnutrition due to a prolonged deficiency of both calories and protein.
Key features:
Severe muscle wasting and loss of subcutaneous fat.
Marked weight loss (usually weight <60% of expected for age).
Often has a voracious appetite if the child is alert and active.
Hepatomegaly is not typical of marasmus; it is more characteristic of kwashiorkor, where fatty infiltration of the liver occurs due to protein deficiency.
Incorrect
Marasmus is a form of severe protein–energy malnutrition due to a prolonged deficiency of both calories and protein.
Key features:
Severe muscle wasting and loss of subcutaneous fat.
Marked weight loss (usually weight <60% of expected for age).
Often has a voracious appetite if the child is alert and active.
Hepatomegaly is not typical of marasmus; it is more characteristic of kwashiorkor, where fatty infiltration of the liver occurs due to protein deficiency.
Unattempted
Marasmus is a form of severe protein–energy malnutrition due to a prolonged deficiency of both calories and protein.
Key features:
Severe muscle wasting and loss of subcutaneous fat.
Marked weight loss (usually weight <60% of expected for age).
Often has a voracious appetite if the child is alert and active.
Hepatomegaly is not typical of marasmus; it is more characteristic of kwashiorkor, where fatty infiltration of the liver occurs due to protein deficiency.
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
What is the effect of omega-3 fatty acids on health?
Correct
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
Incorrect
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
Unattempted
Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce inflammation and are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Saturated fats can increase LDL cholesterol. Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated fats are healthy fats that can improve cholesterol levels.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
All of the following are features of Liddle’s syndrome except
Correct
In Liddle’s syndrome, activating mutations occur in epithelial Na+ channel causing increase in Na+
reclamation that produces hypokalemia, hypertension, and metabolic alkalosis.Incorrect
In Liddle’s syndrome, activating mutations occur in epithelial Na+ channel causing increase in Na+
reclamation that produces hypokalemia, hypertension, and metabolic alkalosis.Unattempted
In Liddle’s syndrome, activating mutations occur in epithelial Na+ channel causing increase in Na+
reclamation that produces hypokalemia, hypertension, and metabolic alkalosis. -
Question 19 of 50
19. Question
Inherited & metabolic disorders that can lead to chronic liver disease include all except
Correct
Inherited and metabolic disorders that can lead to chronic liver disease include 1-Antitrypsin
deficiency, Alagille’s syndrome, Biliary atresia, Familial intrahepatic cholestasis (FIC) types 1-3,
Fanconi’s syndrome, Galactosemia, Gaucher’s disease, Glycogen storage disease,
Hemochromatosis, Hereditary fructose intolerance, Hereditary tyrosinemia, Wilson’s disease.Incorrect
Inherited and metabolic disorders that can lead to chronic liver disease include 1-Antitrypsin
deficiency, Alagille’s syndrome, Biliary atresia, Familial intrahepatic cholestasis (FIC) types 1-3,
Fanconi’s syndrome, Galactosemia, Gaucher’s disease, Glycogen storage disease,
Hemochromatosis, Hereditary fructose intolerance, Hereditary tyrosinemia, Wilson’s disease.Unattempted
Inherited and metabolic disorders that can lead to chronic liver disease include 1-Antitrypsin
deficiency, Alagille’s syndrome, Biliary atresia, Familial intrahepatic cholestasis (FIC) types 1-3,
Fanconi’s syndrome, Galactosemia, Gaucher’s disease, Glycogen storage disease,
Hemochromatosis, Hereditary fructose intolerance, Hereditary tyrosinemia, Wilson’s disease. -
Question 20 of 50
20. Question
Genetic defect in MEN I is in
Correct
The genetic defect in MEN I is in the long arm of chromosome 11 (11q11-q13)
Incorrect
The genetic defect in MEN I is in the long arm of chromosome 11 (11q11-q13)
Unattempted
The genetic defect in MEN I is in the long arm of chromosome 11 (11q11-q13)
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
Which of the following is related to the genetic risk factors for
alcoholic liver diseaseCorrect
Genepolymorphisms may include alcohol dehydrogenase, cytochrome P4502E1, and those associated
with alcoholism (twin studies).Incorrect
Genepolymorphisms may include alcohol dehydrogenase, cytochrome P4502E1, and those associated
with alcoholism (twin studies).Unattempted
Genepolymorphisms may include alcohol dehydrogenase, cytochrome P4502E1, and those associated
with alcoholism (twin studies). -
Question 22 of 50
22. Question
The common name for pteroylmonoglutamic acid is
Correct
Folic acid is the common name for pteroylmonoglutamic acid.
Incorrect
Folic acid is the common name for pteroylmonoglutamic acid.
Unattempted
Folic acid is the common name for pteroylmonoglutamic acid.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
What is the genetic mutation in Cystic Fibrosis?
Correct
Cystic Fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, affecting chloride ion transport. BRCA1 mutations are linked to breast cancer. HBB mutations cause sickle cell anemia. FMR1 mutations lead to Fragile X syndrome.
Incorrect
Cystic Fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, affecting chloride ion transport. BRCA1 mutations are linked to breast cancer. HBB mutations cause sickle cell anemia. FMR1 mutations lead to Fragile X syndrome.
Unattempted
Cystic Fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, affecting chloride ion transport. BRCA1 mutations are linked to breast cancer. HBB mutations cause sickle cell anemia. FMR1 mutations lead to Fragile X syndrome.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
Which inheritance pattern is seen in Huntington‘s disease?
Correct
Huntington‘s disease follows an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning a single copy of the mutated gene can cause the disorder. Autosomal recessive disorders require two copies of the mutated gene. X-linked recessive disorders are mostly seen in males. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
Incorrect
Huntington‘s disease follows an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning a single copy of the mutated gene can cause the disorder. Autosomal recessive disorders require two copies of the mutated gene. X-linked recessive disorders are mostly seen in males. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
Unattempted
Huntington‘s disease follows an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning a single copy of the mutated gene can cause the disorder. Autosomal recessive disorders require two copies of the mutated gene. X-linked recessive disorders are mostly seen in males. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
What is characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder?
Correct
More males are affected because they have only one X chromosome. Females must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to be affected. Equal male and female distribution occurs in autosomal disorders. Affected fathers to sons transmission does not happen in X-linked recessive. Mother to all daughters transmission is seen in mitochondrial inheritance.
Incorrect
More males are affected because they have only one X chromosome. Females must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to be affected. Equal male and female distribution occurs in autosomal disorders. Affected fathers to sons transmission does not happen in X-linked recessive. Mother to all daughters transmission is seen in mitochondrial inheritance.
Unattempted
More males are affected because they have only one X chromosome. Females must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to be affected. Equal male and female distribution occurs in autosomal disorders. Affected fathers to sons transmission does not happen in X-linked recessive. Mother to all daughters transmission is seen in mitochondrial inheritance.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
How does a nonsense mutation affect a protein?
Correct
A nonsense mutation introduces a premature stop codon, leading to a truncated, often nonfunctional protein. Missense mutations result in a single amino acid change. Silent mutations do not alter the amino acid sequence. Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame, affecting all downstream amino acids.
Incorrect
A nonsense mutation introduces a premature stop codon, leading to a truncated, often nonfunctional protein. Missense mutations result in a single amino acid change. Silent mutations do not alter the amino acid sequence. Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame, affecting all downstream amino acids.
Unattempted
A nonsense mutation introduces a premature stop codon, leading to a truncated, often nonfunctional protein. Missense mutations result in a single amino acid change. Silent mutations do not alter the amino acid sequence. Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame, affecting all downstream amino acids.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
What is the role of the p53 gene?
Correct
The p53 gene acts as a tumor suppressor, preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA. Oncogenes promote cell division. Growth factors stimulate cell growth and division. Telomerase maintains telomere length, associated with cell aging and cancer.
Incorrect
The p53 gene acts as a tumor suppressor, preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA. Oncogenes promote cell division. Growth factors stimulate cell growth and division. Telomerase maintains telomere length, associated with cell aging and cancer.
Unattempted
The p53 gene acts as a tumor suppressor, preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA. Oncogenes promote cell division. Growth factors stimulate cell growth and division. Telomerase maintains telomere length, associated with cell aging and cancer.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
Which condition is associated with trisomy 21?
Correct
Down syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, leading to a characteristic set of physical and intellectual features. Turner syndrome involves a missing X chromosome in females. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by an extra X chromosome in males. Triple X syndrome involves an extra X chromosome in females.
Incorrect
Down syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, leading to a characteristic set of physical and intellectual features. Turner syndrome involves a missing X chromosome in females. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by an extra X chromosome in males. Triple X syndrome involves an extra X chromosome in females.
Unattempted
Down syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, leading to a characteristic set of physical and intellectual features. Turner syndrome involves a missing X chromosome in females. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by an extra X chromosome in males. Triple X syndrome involves an extra X chromosome in females.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
Nihilistic ideas are seen in
Correct
Nihilistic ideas involve the belief that oneself, parts of the body, or the world do not exist or are about to be destroyed.
When these ideas take a delusional form, they are known as Cotard’s syndrome, often presenting with severe depressive episodes with psychotic features.
They are most commonly associated with severe depression, especially in psychotic depression, though they can occasionally occur in schizophrenia.
Incorrect
Nihilistic ideas involve the belief that oneself, parts of the body, or the world do not exist or are about to be destroyed.
When these ideas take a delusional form, they are known as Cotard’s syndrome, often presenting with severe depressive episodes with psychotic features.
They are most commonly associated with severe depression, especially in psychotic depression, though they can occasionally occur in schizophrenia.
Unattempted
Nihilistic ideas involve the belief that oneself, parts of the body, or the world do not exist or are about to be destroyed.
When these ideas take a delusional form, they are known as Cotard’s syndrome, often presenting with severe depressive episodes with psychotic features.
They are most commonly associated with severe depression, especially in psychotic depression, though they can occasionally occur in schizophrenia.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
Which syndrome is caused by microdeletion on chromosome 22q11.2?
Correct
DiGeorge syndrome results from a microdeletion on chromosome 22q11.2, affecting development. Williams syndrome involves deletion on chromosome 7. Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome are caused by deletions or imprinting errors on chromosome 15.
Incorrect
DiGeorge syndrome results from a microdeletion on chromosome 22q11.2, affecting development. Williams syndrome involves deletion on chromosome 7. Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome are caused by deletions or imprinting errors on chromosome 15.
Unattempted
DiGeorge syndrome results from a microdeletion on chromosome 22q11.2, affecting development. Williams syndrome involves deletion on chromosome 7. Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome are caused by deletions or imprinting errors on chromosome 15.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
What is an example of a mitochondrial inheritance disorder?
Correct
Leber‘s hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of a mitochondrial inheritance disorder, affecting vision. Hemophilia follows an X-linked recessive pattern. Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant.
Incorrect
Leber‘s hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of a mitochondrial inheritance disorder, affecting vision. Hemophilia follows an X-linked recessive pattern. Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant.
Unattempted
Leber‘s hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of a mitochondrial inheritance disorder, affecting vision. Hemophilia follows an X-linked recessive pattern. Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant.
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
Which genetic condition is characterized by tall stature and aortic dissection risk?
Correct
Marfan syndrome involves connective tissue defects, leading to tall stature and cardiovascular risks. Achondroplasia results in dwarfism. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome affects connective tissue, leading to skin hyperelasticity and joint hypermobility. Osteogenesis imperfecta leads to brittle bones.
Incorrect
Marfan syndrome involves connective tissue defects, leading to tall stature and cardiovascular risks. Achondroplasia results in dwarfism. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome affects connective tissue, leading to skin hyperelasticity and joint hypermobility. Osteogenesis imperfecta leads to brittle bones.
Unattempted
Marfan syndrome involves connective tissue defects, leading to tall stature and cardiovascular risks. Achondroplasia results in dwarfism. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome affects connective tissue, leading to skin hyperelasticity and joint hypermobility. Osteogenesis imperfecta leads to brittle bones.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
What is the genetic defect in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Correct
Dystrophin gene mutations cause Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, leading to muscle weakness. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. MECP2 mutations lead to Rett syndrome. FMR1 mutations cause Fragile X syndrome.
Incorrect
Dystrophin gene mutations cause Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, leading to muscle weakness. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. MECP2 mutations lead to Rett syndrome. FMR1 mutations cause Fragile X syndrome.
Unattempted
Dystrophin gene mutations cause Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, leading to muscle weakness. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. MECP2 mutations lead to Rett syndrome. FMR1 mutations cause Fragile X syndrome.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
What genetic concept explains the varying severity of sickle cell disease symptoms?
Correct
Variable expressivity explains the differing severity of symptoms in sickle cell disease. Incomplete penetrance would mean not all carriers show symptoms. Anticipation involves symptoms becoming more severe in subsequent generations. Linkage disequilibrium describes the non-random association of alleles at different loci.
Incorrect
Variable expressivity explains the differing severity of symptoms in sickle cell disease. Incomplete penetrance would mean not all carriers show symptoms. Anticipation involves symptoms becoming more severe in subsequent generations. Linkage disequilibrium describes the non-random association of alleles at different loci.
Unattempted
Variable expressivity explains the differing severity of symptoms in sickle cell disease. Incomplete penetrance would mean not all carriers show symptoms. Anticipation involves symptoms becoming more severe in subsequent generations. Linkage disequilibrium describes the non-random association of alleles at different loci.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
How is Phenylketonuria (PKU) inherited?
Correct
PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, requiring two copies of the mutated gene to manifest the disease. Autosomal dominant disorders require only one mutated gene. X-linked dominant disorders are rare and can be passed by either parent. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
Incorrect
PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, requiring two copies of the mutated gene to manifest the disease. Autosomal dominant disorders require only one mutated gene. X-linked dominant disorders are rare and can be passed by either parent. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
Unattempted
PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, requiring two copies of the mutated gene to manifest the disease. Autosomal dominant disorders require only one mutated gene. X-linked dominant disorders are rare and can be passed by either parent. Mitochondrial inheritance comes from the mother only.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except
Correct
Gynecomastia can result from an imbalance between estrogen and androgen activity. The typical hormonal workup includes:
Testosterone – to detect androgen deficiency.
Estradiol – to assess excess estrogen states.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) – to evaluate pituitary–gonadal axis and differentiate primary from secondary hypogonadism.
Prolactin is not routinely measured in gynecomastia unless there are signs of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism or pituitary disease (e.g., galactorrhea, headache, visual defects). Hyperprolactinemia causes decreased testosterone indirectly but is not a common direct cause of gynecomastia, hence least useful in routine evaluation.
Incorrect
Gynecomastia can result from an imbalance between estrogen and androgen activity. The typical hormonal workup includes:
Testosterone – to detect androgen deficiency.
Estradiol – to assess excess estrogen states.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) – to evaluate pituitary–gonadal axis and differentiate primary from secondary hypogonadism.
Prolactin is not routinely measured in gynecomastia unless there are signs of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism or pituitary disease (e.g., galactorrhea, headache, visual defects). Hyperprolactinemia causes decreased testosterone indirectly but is not a common direct cause of gynecomastia, hence least useful in routine evaluation.
Unattempted
Gynecomastia can result from an imbalance between estrogen and androgen activity. The typical hormonal workup includes:
Testosterone – to detect androgen deficiency.
Estradiol – to assess excess estrogen states.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) – to evaluate pituitary–gonadal axis and differentiate primary from secondary hypogonadism.
Prolactin is not routinely measured in gynecomastia unless there are signs of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism or pituitary disease (e.g., galactorrhea, headache, visual defects). Hyperprolactinemia causes decreased testosterone indirectly but is not a common direct cause of gynecomastia, hence least useful in routine evaluation.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant type of genetic disorder?
Correct
Colour blindness → X-linked recessive.
Haemophilia → X-linked recessive (most commonly Hemophilia A & B).
Phenylketonuria (PKU) → Autosomal recessive (mutation in PAH gene).
Tuberous sclerosis → Autosomal dominant (mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 genes, leading to hamartomas in multiple organs).
Incorrect
Colour blindness → X-linked recessive.
Haemophilia → X-linked recessive (most commonly Hemophilia A & B).
Phenylketonuria (PKU) → Autosomal recessive (mutation in PAH gene).
Tuberous sclerosis → Autosomal dominant (mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 genes, leading to hamartomas in multiple organs).
Unattempted
Colour blindness → X-linked recessive.
Haemophilia → X-linked recessive (most commonly Hemophilia A & B).
Phenylketonuria (PKU) → Autosomal recessive (mutation in PAH gene).
Tuberous sclerosis → Autosomal dominant (mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 genes, leading to hamartomas in multiple organs).
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
Trichobezoar is
Correct
Trichobezoar is a compact mass of swallowed hair found in the stomach, usually in adolescent or young females with psychiatric disorders such as trichotillomania (hair-pulling) and trichophagia (hair-eating).
It may extend into the small intestine in severe cases (Rapunzel syndrome).
Hair is indigestible, so it accumulates and forms a ball that can cause gastric outlet obstruction.
Incorrect
Trichobezoar is a compact mass of swallowed hair found in the stomach, usually in adolescent or young females with psychiatric disorders such as trichotillomania (hair-pulling) and trichophagia (hair-eating).
It may extend into the small intestine in severe cases (Rapunzel syndrome).
Hair is indigestible, so it accumulates and forms a ball that can cause gastric outlet obstruction.
Unattempted
Trichobezoar is a compact mass of swallowed hair found in the stomach, usually in adolescent or young females with psychiatric disorders such as trichotillomania (hair-pulling) and trichophagia (hair-eating).
It may extend into the small intestine in severe cases (Rapunzel syndrome).
Hair is indigestible, so it accumulates and forms a ball that can cause gastric outlet obstruction.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
Which disorder results from a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase?
Correct
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is caused by a deficiency in 21-hydroxylase, leading to cortisol production issues. Addison‘s disease involves adrenal insufficiency. Cushing‘s syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol. Pheochromocytoma involves a tumor that increases catecholamine production.
Incorrect
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is caused by a deficiency in 21-hydroxylase, leading to cortisol production issues. Addison‘s disease involves adrenal insufficiency. Cushing‘s syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol. Pheochromocytoma involves a tumor that increases catecholamine production.
Unattempted
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is caused by a deficiency in 21-hydroxylase, leading to cortisol production issues. Addison‘s disease involves adrenal insufficiency. Cushing‘s syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol. Pheochromocytoma involves a tumor that increases catecholamine production.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
Confabulation is-
Correct
Confabulation is the unconscious fabrication of false memories to fill in memory gaps, usually seen in organic amnestic states such as Korsakoff’s syndrome (due to thiamine deficiency, often in chronic alcoholism).
It is not intentional lying—the patient believes the fabricated details are true.
It is not typically a feature of delirium, though delirium can cause disorientation and memory impairment.
Incorrect
Confabulation is the unconscious fabrication of false memories to fill in memory gaps, usually seen in organic amnestic states such as Korsakoff’s syndrome (due to thiamine deficiency, often in chronic alcoholism).
It is not intentional lying—the patient believes the fabricated details are true.
It is not typically a feature of delirium, though delirium can cause disorientation and memory impairment.
Unattempted
Confabulation is the unconscious fabrication of false memories to fill in memory gaps, usually seen in organic amnestic states such as Korsakoff’s syndrome (due to thiamine deficiency, often in chronic alcoholism).
It is not intentional lying—the patient believes the fabricated details are true.
It is not typically a feature of delirium, though delirium can cause disorientation and memory impairment.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
Niemann-Pick disease is due to deficiency of
Correct
Niemann–Pick disease is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by deficiency of sphingomyelinase (in types A and B) leading to accumulation of sphingomyelin in macrophages.
It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
Clinical features include hepatosplenomegaly, progressive neurodegeneration, failure to thrive, and “foamy” macrophages on histology.
Type C is due to a defect in cholesterol trafficking (NPC1/NPC2 gene), not enzyme deficiency.
Incorrect
Niemann–Pick disease is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by deficiency of sphingomyelinase (in types A and B) leading to accumulation of sphingomyelin in macrophages.
It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
Clinical features include hepatosplenomegaly, progressive neurodegeneration, failure to thrive, and “foamy” macrophages on histology.
Type C is due to a defect in cholesterol trafficking (NPC1/NPC2 gene), not enzyme deficiency.
Unattempted
Niemann–Pick disease is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by deficiency of sphingomyelinase (in types A and B) leading to accumulation of sphingomyelin in macrophages.
It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
Clinical features include hepatosplenomegaly, progressive neurodegeneration, failure to thrive, and “foamy” macrophages on histology.
Type C is due to a defect in cholesterol trafficking (NPC1/NPC2 gene), not enzyme deficiency.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
What is the major risk factor for developing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?
Correct
Obesity is a major risk factor for NAFLD, leading to fat accumulation in the liver without alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption is related to alcoholic liver disease. Viral hepatitis leads to liver inflammation due to a virus. Autoimmune hepatitis involves the immune system attacking liver cells.
Incorrect
Obesity is a major risk factor for NAFLD, leading to fat accumulation in the liver without alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption is related to alcoholic liver disease. Viral hepatitis leads to liver inflammation due to a virus. Autoimmune hepatitis involves the immune system attacking liver cells.
Unattempted
Obesity is a major risk factor for NAFLD, leading to fat accumulation in the liver without alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption is related to alcoholic liver disease. Viral hepatitis leads to liver inflammation due to a virus. Autoimmune hepatitis involves the immune system attacking liver cells.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
What enzyme deficiency leads to classic Galactosemia?
Correct
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency leads to classic Galactosemia, causing issues with galactose metabolism. Beta-galactosidase deficiency results in GM1 gangliosidosis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia. Aldolase B deficiency causes hereditary fructose intolerance.
Incorrect
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency leads to classic Galactosemia, causing issues with galactose metabolism. Beta-galactosidase deficiency results in GM1 gangliosidosis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia. Aldolase B deficiency causes hereditary fructose intolerance.
Unattempted
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency leads to classic Galactosemia, causing issues with galactose metabolism. Beta-galactosidase deficiency results in GM1 gangliosidosis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia. Aldolase B deficiency causes hereditary fructose intolerance.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
Mousy odour urine is seen in
Correct
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (or its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin), leading to accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites.
These metabolites give the characteristic “mousy” or musty odor to urine, sweat, and breath.
Other features: developmental delay, seizures, hypopigmentation (due to decreased melanin synthesis), eczema.
Maple syrup urine disease has a burnt sugar odor, tyrosinemia has a rancid odor, and homocystinuria does not have a distinctive urine smell.
Incorrect
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (or its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin), leading to accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites.
These metabolites give the characteristic “mousy” or musty odor to urine, sweat, and breath.
Other features: developmental delay, seizures, hypopigmentation (due to decreased melanin synthesis), eczema.
Maple syrup urine disease has a burnt sugar odor, tyrosinemia has a rancid odor, and homocystinuria does not have a distinctive urine smell.
Unattempted
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (or its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin), leading to accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites.
These metabolites give the characteristic “mousy” or musty odor to urine, sweat, and breath.
Other features: developmental delay, seizures, hypopigmentation (due to decreased melanin synthesis), eczema.
Maple syrup urine disease has a burnt sugar odor, tyrosinemia has a rancid odor, and homocystinuria does not have a distinctive urine smell.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
What is the genetic cause of Wilson‘s disease?
Correct
Mutations in the ATP7B gene cause Wilson‘s disease, leading to copper accumulation in the body. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. HFE gene mutations are associated with Hereditary Hemochromatosis. ALDH2 deficiency is linked to alcohol metabolism issues.
Incorrect
Mutations in the ATP7B gene cause Wilson‘s disease, leading to copper accumulation in the body. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. HFE gene mutations are associated with Hereditary Hemochromatosis. ALDH2 deficiency is linked to alcohol metabolism issues.
Unattempted
Mutations in the ATP7B gene cause Wilson‘s disease, leading to copper accumulation in the body. CFTR mutations cause Cystic Fibrosis. HFE gene mutations are associated with Hereditary Hemochromatosis. ALDH2 deficiency is linked to alcohol metabolism issues.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
Hypokalemia is associated frequently with
Correct
Metabolic alkalosis is associated with hypokalemia due to K+ redistribution as well as excessive renal K+
loss.Incorrect
Metabolic alkalosis is associated with hypokalemia due to K+ redistribution as well as excessive renal K+
loss.Unattempted
Metabolic alkalosis is associated with hypokalemia due to K+ redistribution as well as excessive renal K+
loss. -
Question 47 of 50
47. Question
Clinical features of vitamin E deficiency resemble those of
Correct
Presentation of vitamin E deficiency resemble those of Friedreich’s ataxia.
Incorrect
Presentation of vitamin E deficiency resemble those of Friedreich’s ataxia.
Unattempted
Presentation of vitamin E deficiency resemble those of Friedreich’s ataxia.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
What is the outcome of untreated phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Correct
Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase in PKU leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Untreated PKU can lead to intellectual disability, seizures, and behavioral problems due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Mental sharpness implies cognitive well-being, opposite of PKU effects. Muscle hypertrophy is not associated with PKU. Enhanced physical endurance is unrelated to the metabolic effects of PKU.
Incorrect
Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase in PKU leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Untreated PKU can lead to intellectual disability, seizures, and behavioral problems due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Mental sharpness implies cognitive well-being, opposite of PKU effects. Muscle hypertrophy is not associated with PKU. Enhanced physical endurance is unrelated to the metabolic effects of PKU.
Unattempted
Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase in PKU leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Untreated PKU can lead to intellectual disability, seizures, and behavioral problems due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. Mental sharpness implies cognitive well-being, opposite of PKU effects. Muscle hypertrophy is not associated with PKU. Enhanced physical endurance is unrelated to the metabolic effects of PKU.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
Which hormone‘s deficiency is primarily responsible for symptoms of Addison‘s disease?
Correct
Cortisol deficiency in Addison‘s disease leads to symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and low blood pressure. Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus. Thyroid hormone deficiency results in hypothyroidism. Growth hormone deficiency affects growth and body composition.
Incorrect
Cortisol deficiency in Addison‘s disease leads to symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and low blood pressure. Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus. Thyroid hormone deficiency results in hypothyroidism. Growth hormone deficiency affects growth and body composition.
Unattempted
Cortisol deficiency in Addison‘s disease leads to symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and low blood pressure. Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus. Thyroid hormone deficiency results in hypothyroidism. Growth hormone deficiency affects growth and body composition.
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
A newborn presents with hypotonia, poor feeding, and almond-shaped eyes. Genetic testing reveals deletion of paternal chromosome 15q11-q13. Which of the following syndromes is most likely?
Correct
Prader–Willi syndrome → deletion/mutation of paternal 15q11–q13 (maternal allele imprinted).
Features: hypotonia in infancy, feeding difficulties → later hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, short stature.
Angelman syndrome → deletion of maternal 15q11–q13 (paternal allele imprinted), features include inappropriate laughter (“happy puppet”), seizures, ataxia.
Incorrect
Prader–Willi syndrome → deletion/mutation of paternal 15q11–q13 (maternal allele imprinted).
Features: hypotonia in infancy, feeding difficulties → later hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, short stature.
Angelman syndrome → deletion of maternal 15q11–q13 (paternal allele imprinted), features include inappropriate laughter (“happy puppet”), seizures, ataxia.
Unattempted
Prader–Willi syndrome → deletion/mutation of paternal 15q11–q13 (maternal allele imprinted).
Features: hypotonia in infancy, feeding difficulties → later hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, short stature.
Angelman syndrome → deletion of maternal 15q11–q13 (paternal allele imprinted), features include inappropriate laughter (“happy puppet”), seizures, ataxia.

