Pathology 2 Crash

An anxious mother brought her 4 old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination, which showed the following organism. Identify the organism :

A patient present with diarrhea. Analysis of stool on wet mount shows mobile protozoa without RBCs and pus cells the diagnosis is :

All of the following statements about toxoplasmosis are true except :

Vector of Kala-azar is :

A 30 year old patient treated with features of acute meningoencephalitis in casualty. His CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular microorganisms. The most likely organism is :

Reduviid bug is a vector for the transmission of :

Match the list
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

Which of the following infestations leads to malabsorption :

Which of the following statement is false :

Match the list of Plasmodium with their colour of pigment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

Parasitic encephalitis is caused by :
A) Ascaris
B) Naegleria
C) Acanthamoeba
D) Balamuthia
E) Entamoeba

About microsporidia all of the following are false except
A) It is a fungus
B) It is a protozoa
C) It is a bacteria
D) It is trematoda
E) It is associated with diarrhea in HIV patients

Parasite causing encephalitis is/are :
A) Entamoeba histolytica
B) T. gondii
C) Angiostrongyloid cantonensis
D) T. cruzi
E) P. falciparum

Chronic complication of malaria
A) Splenomegaly
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Pneumonia
D) Hodgkin’s disease
E) Encephalitis

Which of the following is not a neuroparasite :

Bladder CA is caused by :

Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease :

Autoinfection is a mode of transmission in :

Commonest parasite of CNS in India is :

Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of:

Which of the following disease is transmitted by egg ingestion :

All the following are True about Brugia malayi except :

Which of the following is associated with an intrinsic defect in the RBC membrane?

Which of the following is not a stem cell of the bone marrow?

Which of the following surface glycoproteins is most often expressed in human hematopoietic stem cell?

Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain:
(A) Reticulocytes
(B) Basophilic stippling
(C) Heinz bodies
(D) Howell-Jolly bodies
(E) Cabot ring

Progenitor hematopoietic stem cells originate in which of the following?

Thrombosthenin is:

The longest living WBC is which one of the following

The normal albumin: globulin (A/G) ratio blood is

Serum contains all the clotting factors except

Aplastic anemia can progress to all except:

An adult who develops pure red cell aplasia should be explicitly evaluated for which of the following?

Hb A2 is raised in which of the following conditions?

Which of following viruses causes hemolysis of red blood cells?

A 20 year old female presents with the following laboratory values: hemoglobin 9gm%, MCV is 55%, RBC is 4.5 million/mm3. There is no history of blood transfusion. What is the most likely diagnosis out of the following?

Ringed sideroblasts are seen in:

All of the following if present provide protection against malaria except:

Response of iron therapy in a patient with iron deficiency anemia is denoted by:

Low iron and low TIBC is seen in

A 23-year-old female presented with jaundice and pallor for 2 months. Her peripheral blood smear shows the presence of spherocytes. The most relevant investigation to arrive at a diagnosis is which of the following?

An Rh -ve woman became pregnant with Rh +ve fetus. Within few days after birth, the infant developed jaundice, ascites, hepatomegaly and oedema. The likely substance(s) deposited in skin and sclera in jaundice is/are given below. Which is the best possible answer?

Myelofibrosis leading to a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration is seen with which of the following conditions?

Which of the following is a pan-T lymphocyte marker?

Acid phosphatase is specific to which of the following cells

Which of the following is not compatible with a diagnosis of chronic myelomonocytic leukemia?

Causes of eosinophilia are except:

Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to proliferation of which of the following cells

Molecular studies on an abdominal lymph node containing lymphoma demonstrate (2;8)(p12;q24) translocation. This is most compatible with which of the following diseases?

The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is:

The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum :

Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following :

A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is ?

The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is :

Neonatal thymectomy leads to :

IL-I produces :

Regarding NK cells, false statement is :

All of the following forces are involved in Antigen antibody reaction except :

Examples of type I hypersensitivity is :

All of the following are glycoproteins except :

Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobins is wrong :

Which of the following is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity:

Diagnosis of ABO incompatibility can be from all of the following except :

Helper cells belong to :

Which of the following is class specific antigenic determinants of an Ig

Which is not a Macrophage :

C-reactive protein is :

Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody :

Staphylococcus aureus differs from staphylococcus epidermidis by :

Which one of the following Gram positive organism is most common cause of UTI among sexually active women :

The following is characteristic feature of staphylococcus food poisoning except :

Common source of staph in hospital :
A) IV fluids
B) Infective wounds
C) Hands of hospital personnel
D) Bed linen
E) Instruments

True statement regarding Pneumococcus is :

The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except :

Differentiation of N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis can be done by :

Conjugate vaccine are available for the prevention of invasive disease caused by all of the following bacteria except :

Least susceptible to gonococcal infection is :

CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows :

Infectivity of chicken pox last for :

Viral enterotoxin is detected as a possible mechanism of pathogenesis in :

In parvovirus infection what is common in adult :

Immunocompromised patient due to transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and neutropenia. Most likely cause is :

Kerion is caused by :

Tinea cruris is caused by :

The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by :

An HIV positive female has an indurated ulcer over the tongue. Laboratory findings show growth in cornmeal agar at 20 Degrees, microscopy showing hyphae and growth inhuman serum at 37 degrees show budding yeasts. The probable cause
is :

In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow
angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is
the likely etiologic agent :

All of the following are dimorphic fungi except :

HIV can be detected and confirmed by :

Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:

A patient with HIV has diarrhoea with AFB +ve organism in stool. The most likely organism is :

Regarding HIV infection, not true is :

When compared to the Western blot technique, ELISA test is :

Which of the following is a marker of HIV infection in blood :

In HIV window period indicates :

Which infection is not common in HIV patients :

Fungal infection associated with AIDS patient are
A) Pueumocystis carini
C) Candida
D) Cryptococcus
E) Cryptosporidium

Persistent diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by A\E :
A) Microsporidia
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Cryptococcus
D) Isospora belli
E) Giardia lambia

In India most common cause of T.B. in HIV :

A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is :